v.1-3 are about the Second coming of Christ and the rapture. They occur after the Trib.What's it all about?
v.1-3 are about the Second coming of Christ and the rapture. They occur after the Trib.What's it all about?
Not really (though I understand your point, and will show why your point isn't valid at the bottom, and why your lack of understanding the raptures timing will always lead you to an erroneous conclusion.)
The tribulation is ALWAYS with us. Jesus said all time is tribulation while on this earth. So, the Church Age Church has 2000 some odd years of tribulation, then we are raptured, there will be a 70th week of troubles, then there will be Jacob's troubles of 3.5 years. The Greatest Ever Troubles Jesus mentions in Matt. 24:21 happens over a 3.5 year period of time, the Anti-Christ is led by Satan, he's the real general, so he knows God's Wrath starts with a cataclysmic asteroid event, thus when the asteroid strikes, he uses that chaos to send the Anti-Christ forth conquering, this wipes out 1/3 of the powers that be in the world out, and creates chaos where he can attack without being noticed for a minute, and BOOM, he's conquered Israel and the WHOLE Mediterranean Sea Region before the rest of the world knows what hit them. IMHO, the United States is a part of the 1/3 that gets wiped out by the asteroid strike.
So, God's Wrath AND the Anti-Christs evil reign both last the exact same 42-months until Jesus shows up at the 7th vial to finish off God's Wrath. Of course, God's Wrath is not aimed at the Church nor the Jewish Israelis who repent. But, only one is protected, in the wilderness/mountains, while the Church gets annihilated. But not THE CHURCH, we are in heaven, the Remnant Church (Rev. 12:17) are the ones who get killed, they missed the Rapture and now they will pay with their lives or serve the Beast, thus they wouldn't;t be the Church, only those who repent and lay down their lives will be the Remnant Church. But the Remnant Church of course gores through TROUBLES, as do the 1/3 of the Jews (Zechariah 13:8-9) who repent and are protected in the Petra/Bozrah area, living n the mountainous wilderness is TROUBLES n and of its self, but the 2/3 who do not repent will perish at the Anti-Christs hands, so isn't that TROUBLES? Those who repented have family being slaughtered, of course, that's troubles, and it's all happening at the same time, so God's Wrath brings TROUBLES and he Anti-Christ brings TROUBLES, and we know the difference in who brings what, but they happen over the exact same 3.5 year period of time.
God doesn't target Christians, but if you did not make the rapture, and you stay in California, you may not know it but the food is about to hit you !! This is why in Matt. 24:36-51it speaks about the time of Noah. Once you miss getting in the ark, and the rains start, there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth. Likewise, if you are not the one TAKEN you will go through the tribulation period, there is no Rapture after the 70th-week starts, I have roved this over and over, READ THE TEXT........The 5th Seal states they will have to WAIT until all of their brothers are killed in LIKE MANNER as they were before they get revenge on those men ON EARTH who killed them. It can't be any clearer, even if people ignore it. Then Rev. 20:4 SHOWS US, that those who died during the 70th week are all Judged, AFTER Jesus Second coming, so those seen in Rev. 7:9-17 came out of the GREAT Church Age Tribulation, as in 2000>7.
Matt. 24:29-31 is the Church AND Jesus returning to earth and Jesus is talking to the Jews who are the Wheat Harvest, not the Gentile Barley Harvest.
It is evident that the Thessalonian Church knows that Jesus is coming soon, and is actively waiting for his return. Now if they know the times and seasons, then why would they be actively waiting unless it is an imminent event? Furthermore we see what they are waiting for, namely the wrath that Jesus spoke of to Jerusalem. So if we digest these things; then there is no need to go into convolutions about 2 Thessalonians 2.
So, given that the Thessalonians know the times and seasons, they would not be asking 'what's the hold-up?'
Furthermore if the coming Paul is talking about, when 'the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven in blazing fire with his powerful angels' were the final return of Christ, then it would be impossible to dupe the Thessalonians. But Paul is worried about this very thing, the Thessalonians being duped into believing '(asserting) that the day of the Lord has already come'.
It is self-evident therefore that the coming Paul is talking about is, firstly, not Christ's final coming.
Hey Old Sage
Well they didn't ask anything but, truly, that would be their concern given the context.
As you say, by the 1st letter they knew the Messiah was coming soon, knowing the times and seasons...but we also have to take into consideration that some time passed between the sending of Paul's 1st letter to the Thessalonians and him sending his 2nd letter. Paul's introduction in his 2nd letter - which is different from the intro of the 1st letter - clues us in as to what those early believers began going through in the meantime:
- Their tribulation//persecution increased because of their faith (2 Thess 1).
- They were possibly getting conflicting information that the day of Messiah was at hand (2 Thess 2) from deceivers.
[As Acts 17 details, there was ALREADY a group of Jews in Thessalonica who would misrepresent Paul. Also later in Acts 20:29-31, before leaving Ephesus, Paul warns the Ephesians that WHEN he leaves deceivers would arise from within their flock leading them away from the truth. Paul's gospel didn't change from one group to the next.]
A few times in 2 Thess chapter 1 Paul notes that they are "troubled" and in chapter 2 encourages them not to be "shaken in mind" as to when that day would come and when they would be gathered to Messiah. The word "patience" is even used.
2 Thess 2:1
Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
So they weren't completely firm in their resolve. They were human. And just like any human enduring persecution and deception, their faith in what they know to be true can be shaken. So, Paul's 2nd letter was meant to explain the timing of events to encourage them.
2 Thess 2:1
Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
Chapter 2 establishes that Paul is specifically speaking on "the gathering of believers to Messiah". Whether we initially assume this event is separate from the fiery wrath or not, we can be sure "the gathering" is what he's writing on in chapter 2.
Paul explains that two events must happen before the gathering:
1) The falling away
2) The man of lawlessness
...He then says "now you know" what's holding back (the gathering, in context): his (i.e. the man of lawlessness) being revealed. Because the secret lawlessness (i.e. the falling away; the 1st event) was ALREADY at work, only he (i.e. the man of lawlessness; the 2nd event) now holds things up...and he will continue until he is taken out of the way. And then he will be revealed and destroyed by Messiah's fiery appearance.
Again, Paul starts the chapter concerning "the gathering"...but by verse 8 Paul ties that context to Messiah's fiery appearance. So we're left to tie those two things together too.
It's very nicely worked out bro ... but I don't believe you are right.
We have to stick rigidly to scripture and I strongly urge that we make our case by the plain and open scriptures first and then look at the more obscure apocalyptic scriptures secondarily. The apocalyptic scriptures must fit in with the pain scriptures not the other way around.
The primary scripture must be our Lord's own statement "After the tribulation of those days .... they shall see the Son of Man coming in the clouds with great power and glory and He will send forth His angels to gather the elect from the 4 corners of heaven"
This fits 2. Thess. 2. perfectly.
I abhor totally the view that any of God's blood bought people will be left behind ... Hal Lindsay made enough dough out of that racket. On what basis would they be left behind?, they were not prepared? they were not watching and waiting? but the scripture says the dead are first to rise ... what did they do to prepare? it is a truly rubbish idea.
You agree that tribulation comes from man, persecution, so specifically the GREAT persecution will come from Antichrist who is the man of rebellion and will lead the rebellion against God. "who opposeth everything called god and all worship of god"
He is going to stamp out all religion or try to, THIS is the great tribulation. And he will have his career and the success of his career is shown by the fact that he sits in the temple at Jerusalem proclaiming that he himself is God.
But there his career ends. He is slain in the temple by the returning Lord. The church is raptured. There is no more persecutor nor any church to persecute. And the famous Day of the Lord has begun. Truly Jesus comes to reign.
Hey Old Sage
Well they didn't ask anything but, truly, that would be their concern given the context.
As you say, by the 1st letter they knew the Messiah was coming soon, knowing the times and seasons...but we also have to take into consideration that some time passed between the sending of Paul's 1st letter to the Thessalonians and him sending his 2nd letter. Paul's introduction in his 2nd letter - which is different from the intro of the 1st letter - clues us in as to what those early believers began going through in the meantime:
- Their tribulation//persecution increased because of their faith (2 Thess 1).
- They were possibly getting conflicting information that the day of Messiah was at hand (2 Thess 2) from deceivers.
[As Acts 17 details, there was ALREADY a group of Jews in Thessalonica who would misrepresent Paul. Also later in Acts 20:29-31, before leaving Ephesus, Paul warns the Ephesians that WHEN he leaves deceivers would arise from within their flock leading them away from the truth. Paul's gospel didn't change from one group to the next.]
A few times in 2 Thess chapter 1 Paul notes that they are "troubled" and in chapter 2 encourages them not to be "shaken in mind" as to when that day would come and when they would be gathered to Messiah. The word "patience" is even used.
2 Thess 2:1
Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
So they weren't completely firm in their resolve. They were human. And just like any human enduring persecution and deception, their faith in what they know to be true can be shaken. So, Paul's 2nd letter was meant to explain the timing of events to encourage them.
2 Thess 2:1
Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
Chapter 2 establishes that Paul is specifically speaking on "the gathering of believers to Messiah". Whether we initially assume this event is separate from the fiery wrath or not, we can be sure "the gathering" is what he's writing on in chapter 2.
Paul explains that two events must happen before the gathering:
1) The falling away
2) The man of lawlessness
...He then says "now you know" what's holding back (the gathering, in context): his (i.e. the man of lawlessness) being revealed. Because the secret lawlessness (i.e. the falling away; the 1st event) was ALREADY at work, only he (i.e. the man of lawlessness; the 2nd event) now holds things up...and he will continue until he is taken out of the way. And then he will be revealed and destroyed by Messiah's fiery appearance.
Again, Paul starts the chapter concerning "the gathering"...but by verse 8 Paul ties that context to Messiah's fiery appearance. So we're left to tie those two things together too.
But the problem is not the Thessalonikans and their faith, the problem is fake news.
Okay, I understand better what you mean by 'what's the hold-up?'.
I am understanding rather that they are simply in a state of heightened anticipation - in fact Paul may have
primed the charge already - 1 Thessalonians 2
''.........to fill up their sins alway: for the wrath is come (phthano) upon them to the uttermost.''
I think phthano here means something like 'is anticipated'
Hence the sense of imminence, and the concomitant possibility of deception.
The primary scripture must be our Lord's own statement "After the tribulation of those days .... they shall see the Son of Man coming in the clouds with great power and glory and He will send forth His angels to gather the elect from the 4 corners of heaven"
This fits 2. Thess. 2. perfectly.
Yes sorry Yahshua,True. But fake news can't be prevented at that point as the deception was already in full swing from Paul's perspective (as soon as he left communities, per Acts 20), so the only way to counteract that fake news is to make sure believers are strong/resistant to it. It's the beginning of the falling away.
Correct me if I'm wrong, but your argument is that "wrath" = "the destruction of Jerusalem (70 AD)", correct? Thus its imminency? (I haven't been following all of the thread).
Paul explains that two events must happen before the gathering:
1) The falling away
2) The man of lawlessness
...He then says "now you know" what's holding back (the gathering, in context): his (i.e. the man of lawlessness) being revealed.
Yes sorry Yahshua,
I missed your earlier posts and thought we were on the same page.
Yes - I entirely see this as about first century events.
The modern interpretation makes very little sense actually if you break it down.
Hi Yahshua,
Yes that is correct
Not exactly.
Paul explains the two items that must be in evidence before the "false claim" [from v.2 ("____IS ALREADY HERE")] can be a true claim:
1) "the departure FIRST" (i.e. Paul's v.1 Subject; contrastly, the Grks had a word for "to fall"... "pipto"... and this is NOT that word)
2) "and the man of sin be revealed..."
The "false claim" (v.2) had/has to do with the idea "that the day of the Lord IS ALREADY HERE [perfect indicative]" (v.2); not that Jesus Himself is already here, but "the day of the Lord TIME PERIOD" that Paul had already spoken of in his first letter as "ARRIVING" at the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR; 1Th5:2-3]" that COMES UPON a woman, that that time period is already here... (Jesus had spoken of those... in His Olivet Discourse... and not as referring to the END of the trib years [i.e. Jesus' RETURN' to the earth point in time], but its BEGINNING [the BEGINNING of the 7-yr Trib])<--this was the essence of the "false claim" (v.2), that this TIME PERIOD was already here and they were IN IT and experiencing it. To which, Paul says, "NOT".
the word is "apostasia" which is a compound word of "apo" ("away from") and "stasis" (standing), to mean "drawn away from an initial state/position". Acts 20:29 uses a similar word to apostasia, "apospan" when referring to the actual deceivers who would appear within the flock to actively lead believers away from the truth.
Where does Acts 20:29 use that ^ word (apospan)... or to refer to the deceivers??
https://biblehub.com/text/acts/20-29.htm
I see in that verse where "aphixin / aphixis [G867]" [apo heko] ("after the DEPARTURE [G867] of me/Paul"... NOT the deceivers he's getting ready to reference there...![]()
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Are you referring to a difference verse, perhaps??
Where does Acts 20:29 use that ^ word (apospan)... or to refer to the deceivers??
https://biblehub.com/text/acts/20-29.htm
I see in that verse where "aphixin / aphixis [G867]" [apo heko] ("after the DEPARTURE [G867] of me/Paul"... NOT the deceivers he's getting ready to reference there...![]()
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Are you referring to a difference verse, perhaps??
NVM, I see now that you were referring to a different word, the one in the FOLLOWING verse (v.30)... same word there as found also in Acts 21:1 - "And it happened that after having drawn away [G645] from them, having run directly in our sailing, we came to Cos, and the next day to Rhodes, and from there to Patara."
Acts 20:30 V-PNA [active]
GRK: διεστραμμένα τοῦ ἀποσπᾷν τοὺς μαθητὰς
NAS: perverse things, to draw away the disciples
KJV: perverse things, to draw away disciples
INT: perverse things to draw away the disciples
Acts 21:1 V-APP-AMP [passive]
GRK: ἀναχθῆναι ἡμᾶς ἀποσπασθέντας ἀπ' αὐτῶν
NAS: When we had parted from them and had set sail,
KJV: that after we were gotten from them,
INT: sailed we having drawn away from them
^ nothing in this second example (of two verses) refers to anything like "a falling away" FROM THE FAITH, but rather a geographical/spatial departing / RELOCATION
[re: the "related" word you're pointing out]
Surely Paul wasn't warning them night and day with tears - for 3 years - that others would arise among them to draw them away to another... geographical LOCATION!! lol C'mon.
Yes sorry Yahshua,
I missed your earlier posts and thought we were on the same page.
Yes - I entirely see this as about first century events.
The modern interpretation makes very little sense actually if you break it down.
In post #121,page 7 I gave you the reasoning behind why it is not captive to the first century ad. It's as if everyone sees this as black or white,left or right in this as though it can only be either of the two,, either one form or another of preterism or if not then it has to be pre trib. rapture dispensationism. Neither of the two are correct but without reading those 22 chapters who will know....
Your meaning the Israelite's/Jews who died in the first revolt? If so this would mean that they(the Israelite's/Jews) had in fact worshiped the image of the beast and received his mark. Then so if Rome is that beast