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i was being facetious.

The early church didn’t believe in foreknowledge? Oh, btw, what does free will have to do with election according to foreknowledge? We’re talking about Gods ability, not man’s.

God needs to find out how we turn out because He doesn’t know yet.

People who end up in hell are not predestined because God did not foreknow them. Only believers are foreknown and predestinated. And all of these are also justified and glorified.

You’re not answering the question. The question was, how is the preposition used in that verse? That’s all I’m asking There are several ways that the preposition is used in the Bible. Which usage is the one Paul meant there?

Ummm....God chose Noah before Noah built the ark.

So God is dependent on us to have foreknowledge? Ok Bub. :ROFL:

How is the word “in Christ” used in Ephesians 3:11

Multiple red herrings in one post. Are you shooting for a record? A. Chosen according to foreknowledge is taught by Peter. Paul links foreknowledge and predestination. B. Did God choose the plan of redemption before sin existed or after. He chose the plan of redemption before, based on His...

Yep. Foreknow, predestine, justify, glorify are all works of God. That is why your prooftexts don’t refute what I’m saying. Because God predestined us, not we ourselves.

Paul and Peter both connect the verb foreknow with election and/or predestination. I guess you’ll have to take it up with them.

I’ve already answered this objection numerous times. As I’ve said, check the range of usage for the phrase “in Christ”, “ in Jesus”, and “in Him”. It doesn’t always refer to a locative position. For example, in Ephesians 3:11

Those who die lost were not, never were elect or predestined because they were not foreknown. (Romans 8:29-30, 1 Peter 1:1-2). See how simple it is when you let scripture speak for itself? This should answer all your objections.

Where do we see a reference to GOD predestining anyone? The verses you quote from Romans 8 are purely about what we do in response to God’s grace. Your proof texts say nothing about God electing or predestining. ( active verbs.). Since we’re talking about God’s works or what He does, you...

These verses speak from a purely human frame of reference. Predestination is a WORK ( active verb) of God, not on man There is NOTHING about God’s ACTIONS of foreknowing and predestinating or electing in your proof texts. Your argument utterly fails.

These passages do not address a time frame for predestination. The only passages that give a frame of reference are Ephesians 1 and Romans 8:29-30.

Where does the Bible say “when” we are predestined?

The time frame given in Ephesians 1:4-5 is before the foundation of the world, btw.

But where does it say predestination is after conversion To say that... A. because what we are predestined to is largely yet future, B. that it necessarily follows that God’s act of predestining us follows/comes after our faith is a grand non-sequitur Here is your argument A. Paul is...

Elect is used to refer to many things. Israel, Christ, the church, and believers.