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Where is this distinction spelled out in Scripture? Where, for that matter, are the qualifications and duties of a “servant” spelled out? Hint: the pastoral epistles.

Of course a female deacon can have a husband, and at that time, a man might have had more than one wife. It’s really not that difficult.

Exactly; your interpretation of Paul's words is wrong.

The video is about 75 minutes long. In it, one of the scientists with Answers in Genesis debunks several of the "proofs" used by flat-earth proponents.

“Omicron” can be rearranged to spell “moronic”. I don’t think it means anything.

There’s the rub: he can’t acknowledge that there are errors in the KJV.

Fallacy: circular reasoning.

You really like being a jackdonkey, don't you? Well, given that's how you want to be treated, that's how I'll treat you.

Which is enough to prompt me to look further, and having looked, I have found that some word choices in English are actually poor translations of the Greek.

This is just stirring the pot for no good reason. It is well known that the translators of the KJV did not get everything right (despite the bleating of the KJV-only sectarians). It is worthwhile checking the original languages when things don't make sense in English, as in this case.

To people alive when Paul, Peter and John were alive, “soon” meant within their lifetimes. It happened just as the biblical authors said, but not how we think it says. I would encourage all readers to study the events of 66-70 AD, and to suspend what Scofield or other commentators have said.

Locusts! Get your wild-honey-dipped locusts here!

Unmitigated slander.

It seems to me that you have a point, and I think it is correct, but you're rambling and obfuscating your point by wrapping it in silly notions of "real" versus "unreal" persons. Maybe try stating your point simply and concisely.

Since when do I take your advice?

It sounds like you are aware of the book, but haven't actually read it. Get back to me when you have.

You really need to do more homework on this subject. I'd recommend that you read chapter 8 of Michael Heiser's Reversing Hermon.

Your unwillingness to consider the Greek undermines your position. Where there are actually pronouns in Greek in this passage, they are not gender-specific.

Ditch the stupidity. The Greek word is "diakonos", which is rendered "deacon" in several places. However, in this one place where it is used in reference to a woman, it is translated "servant". Bias much? Absolutely! The NIV and other modern translations have it correct, while the KJV has it...

I'd love to hear a congregant respond in "prayer" with, "Lord, teach this fool how to communicate privately and directly with people instead of publicly berating them in this sham of a prayer."