Search results

Your 're mixing up motivations, and you have them all wrong. Your opinions are irrelevant.

While not all of Scripture is in chronological order, there is no chronological ambiguity in Peter's statement. Repent, believe, be baptised, receive the Holy Spirit. The words are in the order the events happen. Red herring. Let's deal with one issue at a time.

There's a helpful contribution. I disagree with you because I agree with Scripture, and you don't... at least on this matter.

That would require us to be under the old covenant in the first place, which we are not and never were. This is the usual claim of the Judaizer: that just because we aren't under the Law, that we want to be wicked. It's an irrational and, frankly, insulting argument. Wrong. God set certain...

Kinney is simply wrong on this point. Since the translators didn't use the KJV as their primary source, they didn't "omit" or "substitute" anything from the KJV. I'm surprised that you repeat this tripe.

You have it backwards. John 3:36, Mark 16:16, and John 16:8 are irrelevant, saying nothing whatsoever about the order of events. Mark 1:15 clearly puts "repent" before "believe". Plus, somehow you have overlooked the following evidence that absolutely destroys your position: Acts 2:38 Peter...

You can believe what you want, but the verses you posted don't support your assertions that the righteousness of God IS the faith of Jesus Christ (or vice-versa) or that the faith of Christ is imputed to believers.

That does not say that the righteousness of God IS the faith of Christ. It says that the righteousness of God is BY faith the faith of Christ. Those little words matter… pay more careful attention!

Fail! You claimed that “the faith of Jesus Christ” is imputed to believers, but haven’t provided any relevant Scripture to support your claim. Changing from “imputed” to “given” or “upon” doesn’t fix your error.

In your earlier post, you said this: "Nope, the faith of Jesus Christ, which is God's righteousness, is imputed to those that believe." None of the verses you quoted state or imply that "the faith of Jesus Christ" is imputed to those that believe. Romans 3:22 says, "righteousness... which is...

White did not ignore Kinney's question. He answered it. Kinney (and you, apparently) just don't like the answer. Kinney's approach is logically identical (and similarly flawed) to the common question from Moslems, "Where in the Bible did Jesus claim to be God?" Just because there is no simple...

Please cite the source(s) for your assertion.

That says “righteousness… is by faith”, not “righteousness is faith”.

Chapter and verse, please.

Yet you advocate that it is Jesus' faith that saves, not the individual's faith. Your beliefs are contradictory.

No, we don't know that by faith, and faith is not the right tool for that application. Faith is applicable when if comes to God's promises, not when it comes to interpreting tertiary issues in Scripture. We infer by logic that the messenger of Satan that afflicted Paul was not a personal sin...

Those aren't the same thing.

That is not (even remotely) a valid statement. It is entirely dependent on the specific subject of the reasoning. Faith is appropriate in some cases, logic is appropriate in some cases, and methodical study is appropriate in some cases. Sometimes, two or even all three overlap.

Where is that in Scripture? Where in Scripture does it say that the messenger of Satan was tempting or enticing Paul with anything? Where does it say, "tempted continually" in Scripture?

And it is very presumptuous of you to respond by saying "that obviously you are not aware of". If I were not aware, I would have all the more reason to question your assertions. You're new here, and therefore have zero credibility. Cite your sources when you post your "facts". What's your...