Where does scripture state he cannot obey the commandment?
Mankind’s inability to submit to God’s law does not prove their inability to trust in Christ who fulfilled the law for mankind.
Mankind’s inability to please God while acting in the flesh does not prove mankind’s inability to respond to the spiritual appeal of God through the Gospel so as to receive salvation.
The gospel IS God’s spiritual and gracious means. Faith comes by hearing!
To teach this concept of pre-faith regeneration or special enabling (prevenient grace) means that God (for some unknown reason) decided to punish all of us for the sin of Adam by making us all innately incapable of responding willingly (from birth mind you)
to His own word unless He actively did something to make us able again.
Does that make any rational sense if viewed objectively?
I wait for that verse that states the above clearly. You will not find it because it does not exist.
You can find all manner of descriptions of the fallen man but you have no link, no clearly stated scripture that teaches man is born unable respond to positively to the Gospel message.
What you doing is making a theological incorrect deduction which is made in spite of overwhelming verses which state the opposite.
John 20:31
“But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.”
Spiritual life comes through a person exercising faith IN Christ Jesus, not the other way around.
Mankind’s inability to submit to God’s law does not prove their inability to trust in Christ who fulfilled the law for mankind.
Mankind’s inability to please God while acting in the flesh does not prove mankind’s inability to respond to the spiritual appeal of God through the Gospel so as to receive salvation.
The gospel IS God’s spiritual and gracious means. Faith comes by hearing!
To teach this concept of pre-faith regeneration or special enabling (prevenient grace) means that God (for some unknown reason) decided to punish all of us for the sin of Adam by making us all innately incapable of responding willingly (from birth mind you)
to His own word unless He actively did something to make us able again.
Does that make any rational sense if viewed objectively?
I wait for that verse that states the above clearly. You will not find it because it does not exist.
You can find all manner of descriptions of the fallen man but you have no link, no clearly stated scripture that teaches man is born unable respond to positively to the Gospel message.
What you doing is making a theological incorrect deduction which is made in spite of overwhelming verses which state the opposite.
John 20:31
“But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.”
Spiritual life comes through a person exercising faith IN Christ Jesus, not the other way around.
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