The Error of KJV-Onlyism

Are you claiming that a translation cannot be the inspired word of God? Be careful how you answer.

I don't believe that any translation is the perfect word of God in English.

I don't respond to trick questions! Your question has the same flavor as that of the Pharisees when they tried to trap Jesus.

I don't respond to trick questions! Your question has the same flavor as that of the Pharisees when they tried to trap Jesus.

The problem is how is your belief consistent?

That is a question you should be asking yourself, since you make a claim, then seemingly deny it with your KJ onlyism stance. And if deny is the wrong word, it is certainly contradicted by any and all who say the KJV is perfect, and no other translation measures up.

If you cannot see that then you are wilfully blind.

This is merely an opinion with no evidence to back up your claim. You did not reply to any of the Biblical points I provided with Bible verses of your own.

lemon? potato? sassafrass?

If you're trying to be funny, you clearly are not. Is the discussion about KJV-onlyism a joke to you?

Your question has the same flavor as that of the Pharisees when they tried to trap Jesus.

I don't believe that any translation is the perfect word of God in English.

I don't respond to trick questions! Your question has the same flavor as that of the Pharisees when they tried to trap Jesus.

I wonder how many times the issue of how four different words with four different meaning were ALL erroneously translated to one word in the KJB (which has caused untold confusion) and how many time KJ onlyists pretend this is not an error or brush it aside even while saying any error whatsoever disqualifies a translation? I bet in this thread alone the issue has been brought up numerous times. None make any difference to the KJ onlyists who want more proof as if none has been given already. They are a dishonest lot.

probably something more bitter, like bay leaf, i imagine..

Well, that's not true. There actually is proof that the KJV is the "pure and holy" word of God.

#1. The 1611th mention of LORD (super-caps) is found in Deuteronomy 16:11. What is significant about this is that this verse says that we (the reader) are to rejoice in the place where God places His name. While this is referring to the Jewish temple, it is also noteworthy to point out that there is a symbiotic relationship between the Living Word (JESUS), and the Communicated Word (like Scripture) (See here). Jesus' body is referred to as a temple (John 2:21). So if Jesus is associated with the temple, then the Word of God (words of God, or the Communicated Word) would also be like a temple (See: Proverbs 18:10). In fact, the King James Bible is the first English Bible to distinguish between LORD (Jehovah - sacred name of God) vs. Lord (Adonai - master). All previous Textus Receptus Bibles never made this distinction before (properly reflecting the underlying original words) (See this video here by Brandon Peterson).

#2. If you were to add up the verse numbers down in a straight column for Luke 4:4, Matthew 4:4, and Deuteronomy 8:3 (See this example here), you would see that it adds up to a total of 16:11. This is significant because it is the only three verses that express the truth that man shall not live by bread alone but by every Word of God.

#3. In Acts 16:11, Paul is headed to a certain destination by boat. If you were to take a straight line and draw it passed his destination and keep going in a straight line from that same direction, it would end up in England where the King James Bible was made. In addition to that, the island that Paul stopped at along the way had a mountain on it. This mountain is named "Fengari" (which you can see in this article here). What is significant about this mountain is that it is 1611 meters high.

#4. Psalms 119 is close to the heart of the Bible. (Side Note: Psalms 103:1-2 are the two middle verses of the Bible (i.e. the center or heart of the Bible). Anyway, Psalms 119 talks about the Word of God (i.e., the Communicated Word of God, like Scripture). Psalms 119 has 176 verses. This is the mathematic equation 16 x 11 (i.e., 1611).

#5. Psalm 138:2 states, "For You have magnified Your word above all Your name." This verse is altered in Modern Bibles to destroy this truth (Which conveniently fits the theology of those who reject the idea of the importance and perfection of God's Word as KJV believers). (Side Note: KJV believers have been falsely slandered in that we worship the KJV when they are not able to fully grasp the importance of the teaching in Word in Psalms 138:2, and Psalms 119:140). Anyway, Psalms 138 (the chapter) has 1611 words.

Then you have no final authority on which to build your life.

none of the things you list are proof that the king james translation is inerrant nor the only permissable translation into the pagan language we call english, and most of them are flat out lies:




FALSEHOOD

• the 1611'th time the tetragrammaton occurs in the Hebrew is in Joshua 2:23. it is in the Torah only 14,89 times, so your count must be false.
• it is not proof of anything even if it were the 1611th time a word is found -- 1611 is not a Biblically significant number at all -- this is pure secular numerology with no basis in scripture.

FALSEHOOD

• verse numbers are uninspired and a much later addition to the Bible
• you have no basis for adding them together at all other than to try to find your magic occult number
• these are NOT the only passages which express that man lives by the word of God, not bread -- that's a deliberate lie. see also for example John 6:63, 6:68; Psalm 119:25, 107, Job 23:12, etc etc

FALSEHOOD

• mt. Fenagri is 1,585 meters not 1,611
• Paul took lots of journeys, why would this one be prophetic of a translation ??
• a straight line from Traos to Samothrace doesn't go anywhere near England! it goes close to Copenhagen!
  View attachment 261350

• verse numbers were added in 1509, they are not inspired
• 176 = 11*2^4 -- there's no reason to arbitrarily assign meaning to something that was meaningless in the first place and hasn't been completely prime factorized. more BS occultic "number searching"
• Psalm 119 is far removed from Psalm 103. saying "Ps 119 is "close" is utterly meaningless.

FALSEHOOD

• God wrote Psalm 138 in Hebrew, not the pagan language we call english. in God's inspired language, the psalm has 62 words
• in the kj translation the psalm has 172 words, not 1,611
• no reason to count words in one psalm in the first place to tell you whether a pagan translation into a pagan language is the only inerrant permissible word of God.
• utter occultism

none of the things you list are proof that the king james translation is inerrant nor the only permissable translation into the pagan language we call english, and most of them are flat out lies:




FALSEHOOD

• the 1611'th time the tetragrammaton occurs in the Hebrew is in Joshua 2:23. it is in the Torah only 14,89 times, so your count must be false.
• it is not proof of anything even if it were the 1611th time a word is found -- 1611 is not a Biblically significant number at all -- this is pure secular numerology with no basis in scripture.

FALSEHOOD

• verse numbers are uninspired and a much later addition to the Bible
• you have no basis for adding them together at all other than to try to find your magic occult number
• these are NOT the only passages which express that man lives by the word of God, not bread -- that's a deliberate lie. see also for example John 6:63, 6:68; Psalm 119:25, 107, Job 23:12, etc etc
  

FALSEHOOD

• mt. Fenagri is 1,585 meters not 1,611
• Paul took lots of journeys, why would this one be prophetic of a translation ??
• a straight line from Traos to Samothrace doesn't go anywhere near England! it goes close to Copenhagen!
  View attachment 261350

• verse numbers were added in 1509, they are not inspired
• 176 = 11*2^4 -- there's no reason to arbitrarily assign meaning to something that was meaningless in the first place and hasn't been completely prime factorized. more BS occultic "number searching"
• Psalm 119 is far removed from Psalm 103. saying "Ps 119 is "close" is utterly meaningless.

FALSEHOOD

• God wrote Psalm 138 in Hebrew, not the pagan language we call english. in God's inspired language, the psalm has 62 words
• in the kj translation the psalm has 172 words, not 1,611
• no reason to count words in one psalm in the first place to tell you whether a pagan translation into a pagan language is the only inerrant permissible word of God.
• utter occultism

does this make you feel better, @jamessb ?

is it better for me to try to destroy someone's faith, or to make our brothers and sisters smile, step back, and realize that this thread isn't life and death?