The Error of KJV-Onlyism

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jamessb

Active member
Feb 10, 2024
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Santa Fe NM
Are you claiming that a translation cannot be the inspired word of God? Be careful how you answer.;)
I don't respond to trick questions! Your question has the same flavor as that of the Pharisees when they tried to trap Jesus.
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
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I don't believe that any translation is the perfect word of God in English.
So… the different translations on the sign on the cross was not a perfect translation? There are numerous examples like this in the Bible.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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The problem is how is your belief consistent?
That is a question you should be asking yourself, since you make a claim, then seemingly deny it with your KJ onlyism stance. And if deny is the wrong word, it is certainly contradicted by any and all who say the KJV is perfect, and no other translation measures up.

If you cannot see that then you are wilfully blind.
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
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That is a question you should be asking yourself, since you make a claim, then seemingly deny it with your KJ onlyism stance. And if deny is the wrong word, it is certainly contradicted by any and all who say the KJV is perfect, and no other translation measures up.

If you cannot see that then you are wilfully blind.
This is merely an opinion with no evidence to back up your claim. You did not reply to any of the Biblical points I provided with Bible verses of your own.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
61,160
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This is merely an opinion with no evidence to back up your claim. You did not reply to any of the Biblical points I provided with Bible verses of your own.
You say, any error and the translation is not perfect, then close your eyes to any errors in KJV. Got it. Bye.

You are dishonest.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,975
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If you're trying to be funny, you clearly are not. Is the discussion about KJV-onlyism a joke to you?
as many kjv-only threads as i've read on this forum, and the number of times anyone has ever actually changed their opinion due to one of these threads,

... honestly yes. some lightheartedness is absolutely necessary imho.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
61,160
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I wonder how many times the issue of how four different words with four different meaning were ALL erroneously translated to one word in the KJB (which has caused untold confusion) and how many time KJ onlyists pretend this is not an error or brush it aside even while saying any error whatsoever disqualifies a translation? I bet in this thread alone the issue has been brought up numerous times. None make any difference to the KJ onlyists who want more proof as if none has been given already. They are a dishonest lot.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,177
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I don't respond to trick questions! Your question has the same flavor as that of the Pharisees when they tried to trap Jesus.
It is not a trick question but one of importance when dealing with the issue at hand.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,614
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I wonder how many times the issue of how four different words with four different meaning were ALL erroneously translated to one word in the KJB (which has caused untold confusion) and how many time KJ onlyists pretend this is not an error or brush it aside even while saying any error whatsoever disqualifies a translation? I bet in this thread alone the issue has been brought up numerous times. None make any difference to the KJ onlyists who want more proof as if none has been given already. They are a dishonest lot.
I'm sure you know by now that dyed-in-the-wool KJV-onlyists are incapable of recognizing any error in the KJV. They have become blind to the truth.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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Well, that's not true. There actually is proof that the KJV is the "pure and holy" word of God.
none of the things you list are proof that the king james translation is inerrant nor the only permissable translation into the pagan language we call english, and most of them are flat out lies:


#1. The 1611th mention of LORD (super-caps) is found in Deuteronomy 16:11. What is significant about this is that this verse says that we (the reader) are to rejoice in the place where God places His name. While this is referring to the Jewish temple, it is also noteworthy to point out that there is a symbiotic relationship between the Living Word (JESUS), and the Communicated Word (like Scripture) (See here). Jesus' body is referred to as a temple (John 2:21). So if Jesus is associated with the temple, then the Word of God (words of God, or the Communicated Word) would also be like a temple (See: Proverbs 18:10). In fact, the King James Bible is the first English Bible to distinguish between LORD (Jehovah - sacred name of God) vs. Lord (Adonai - master). All previous Textus Receptus Bibles never made this distinction before (properly reflecting the underlying original words) (See this video here by Brandon Peterson).
FALSEHOOD

  • the 1611'th time the tetragrammaton occurs in the Hebrew is in Joshua 2:23. it is in the Torah only 14,89 times, so your count must be false.
  • it is not proof of anything even if it were the 1611th time a word is found -- 1611 is not a Biblically significant number at all -- this is pure secular numerology with no basis in scripture.
#2. If you were to add up the verse numbers down in a straight column for Luke 4:4, Matthew 4:4, and Deuteronomy 8:3 (See this example here), you would see that it adds up to a total of 16:11. This is significant because it is the only three verses that express the truth that man shall not live by bread alone but by every Word of God.
FALSEHOOD

  • verse numbers are uninspired and a much later addition to the Bible
  • you have no basis for adding them together at all other than to try to find your magic occult number
  • these are NOT the only passages which express that man lives by the word of God, not bread -- that's a deliberate lie. see also for example John 6:63, 6:68; Psalm 119:25, 107, Job 23:12, etc etc

#3. In Acts 16:11, Paul is headed to a certain destination by boat. If you were to take a straight line and draw it passed his destination and keep going in a straight line from that same direction, it would end up in England where the King James Bible was made. In addition to that, the island that Paul stopped at along the way had a mountain on it. This mountain is named "Fengari" (which you can see in this article here). What is significant about this mountain is that it is 1611 meters high.
FALSEHOOD

  • mt. Fenagri is 1,585 meters not 1,611
  • Paul took lots of journeys, why would this one be prophetic of a translation ??
  • a straight line from Traos to Samothrace doesn't go anywhere near England! it goes close to Copenhagen!
    Screenshot 2024-03-10 174704.jpg

#4. Psalms 119 is close to the heart of the Bible. (Side Note: Psalms 103:1-2 are the two middle verses of the Bible (i.e. the center or heart of the Bible). Anyway, Psalms 119 talks about the Word of God (i.e., the Communicated Word of God, like Scripture). Psalms 119 has 176 verses. This is the mathematic equation 16 x 11 (i.e., 1611).

  • verse numbers were added in 1509, they are not inspired
  • 176 = 11*2^4 -- there's no reason to arbitrarily assign meaning to something that was meaningless in the first place and hasn't been completely prime factorized. more BS occultic "number searching"
  • Psalm 119 is far removed from Psalm 103. saying "Ps 119 is "close" is utterly meaningless.

#5. Psalm 138:2 states, "For You have magnified Your word above all Your name." This verse is altered in Modern Bibles to destroy this truth (Which conveniently fits the theology of those who reject the idea of the importance and perfection of God's Word as KJV believers). (Side Note: KJV believers have been falsely slandered in that we worship the KJV when they are not able to fully grasp the importance of the teaching in Word in Psalms 138:2, and Psalms 119:140). Anyway, Psalms 138 (the chapter) has 1611 words.
FALSEHOOD

  • God wrote Psalm 138 in Hebrew, not the pagan language we call english. in God's inspired language, the psalm has 62 words
  • in the kj translation the psalm has 172 words, not 1,611
  • no reason to count words in one psalm in the first place to tell you whether a pagan translation into a pagan language is the only inerrant permissible word of God.
  • utter occultism
 

jamessb

Active member
Feb 10, 2024
738
122
43
Santa Fe NM
Then you have no final authority on which to build your life.
Jesus is the final authority on which I build my life. In Him I live and move and have my being.

The Bible is composed of words -- language -- but that is all it is. The Bible is not a part of the Godhead.

That is the problem with the KJV-only people. They worship a book! And of course it is a translation, not the original.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,975
13,626
113
none of the things you list are proof that the king james translation is inerrant nor the only permissable translation into the pagan language we call english, and most of them are flat out lies:




FALSEHOOD

  • the 1611'th time the tetragrammaton occurs in the Hebrew is in Joshua 2:23. it is in the Torah only 14,89 times, so your count must be false.
  • it is not proof of anything even if it were the 1611th time a word is found -- 1611 is not a Biblically significant number at all -- this is pure secular numerology with no basis in scripture.


FALSEHOOD

  • verse numbers are uninspired and a much later addition to the Bible
  • you have no basis for adding them together at all other than to try to find your magic occult number
  • these are NOT the only passages which express that man lives by the word of God, not bread -- that's a deliberate lie. see also for example John 6:63, 6:68; Psalm 119:25, 107, Job 23:12, etc etc


FALSEHOOD

  • mt. Fenagri is 1,585 meters not 1,611
  • Paul took lots of journeys, why would this one be prophetic of a translation ??
  • a straight line from Traos to Samothrace doesn't go anywhere near England! it goes close to Copenhagen!
    View attachment 261350




  • verse numbers were added in 1509, they are not inspired
  • 176 = 11*2^4 -- there's no reason to arbitrarily assign meaning to something that was meaningless in the first place and hasn't been completely prime factorized. more BS occultic "number searching"
  • Psalm 119 is far removed from Psalm 103. saying "Ps 119 is "close" is utterly meaningless.



FALSEHOOD

  • God wrote Psalm 138 in Hebrew, not the pagan language we call english. in God's inspired language, the psalm has 62 words
  • in the kj translation the psalm has 172 words, not 1,611
  • no reason to count words in one psalm in the first place to tell you whether a pagan translation into a pagan language is the only inerrant permissible word of God.
  • utter occultism

does this make you feel better, @jamessb ?

is it better for me to try to destroy someone's faith, or to make our brothers and sisters smile, step back, and realize that this thread isn't life and death?

what is going to be more useful to the gospel?
@Bible_Highlighter is not going to change his mind. he will keep posting occultic lies. it doesn't matter to him that he is outed and that his paper-thin arguments have holes poked in them.

but someone may have their heart warmed, and enjoy my fellowship.

what is the good part?
 

jamessb

Active member
Feb 10, 2024
738
122
43
Santa Fe NM
none of the things you list are proof that the king james translation is inerrant nor the only permissable translation into the pagan language we call english, and most of them are flat out lies:




FALSEHOOD

  • the 1611'th time the tetragrammaton occurs in the Hebrew is in Joshua 2:23. it is in the Torah only 14,89 times, so your count must be false.
  • it is not proof of anything even if it were the 1611th time a word is found -- 1611 is not a Biblically significant number at all -- this is pure secular numerology with no basis in scripture.


FALSEHOOD

  • verse numbers are uninspired and a much later addition to the Bible
  • you have no basis for adding them together at all other than to try to find your magic occult number
  • these are NOT the only passages which express that man lives by the word of God, not bread -- that's a deliberate lie. see also for example John 6:63, 6:68; Psalm 119:25, 107, Job 23:12, etc etc


FALSEHOOD

  • mt. Fenagri is 1,585 meters not 1,611
  • Paul took lots of journeys, why would this one be prophetic of a translation ??
  • a straight line from Traos to Samothrace doesn't go anywhere near England! it goes close to Copenhagen!
    View attachment 261350




  • verse numbers were added in 1509, they are not inspired
  • 176 = 11*2^4 -- there's no reason to arbitrarily assign meaning to something that was meaningless in the first place and hasn't been completely prime factorized. more BS occultic "number searching"
  • Psalm 119 is far removed from Psalm 103. saying "Ps 119 is "close" is utterly meaningless.



FALSEHOOD

  • God wrote Psalm 138 in Hebrew, not the pagan language we call english. in God's inspired language, the psalm has 62 words
  • in the kj translation the psalm has 172 words, not 1,611
  • no reason to count words in one psalm in the first place to tell you whether a pagan translation into a pagan language is the only inerrant permissible word of God.
  • utter occultism
Great post!!!
 

jamessb

Active member
Feb 10, 2024
738
122
43
Santa Fe NM
does this make you feel better, @jamessb ?

is it better for me to try to destroy someone's faith, or to make our brothers and sisters smile, step back, and realize that this thread isn't life and death?
I always enjoy it when a person tells the truth. If a person's faith is destroyed -- an exaggeration! -- by learning the truth, it is better for them in the long run.