The Error of KJV-Onlyism

It seems that for him to accept what the text actually says, he must ascribe evil to God's character .

Hosea 1:2 KJV The beginning of the word of the Lord by Hosea. And the Lord said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord.

"whoredoms", Strong's Dictionary:
2183 (Hebrew form), zanuwn, zawnoon, from 2181; adultery fig. idolatry:--whoredom.

One does not understand Scripture if they allow their moral outrage to exclude the obvious meaning of the text.

Look. We do not believe the KJB because a light shined down upon it from our window. Neither did we just randomly select it, either. As I mentioned to you before, there are 101 Reasons to believe in the KJB and 10 main categories. We are not without our good reasons. But your reasons for Textual Criticism are lacking by comparison. You just believe a THEORY that the scholars say that just because the oldest manuscripts automatically equates with it being an accurate copy of the originals.

It's just a theory. Besides, Paul said that the Scriptures were being corrupted during his time. You also have to believe the church was deceived into following the wrong Bible for hundreds of years when times were simpler and more men lived according to the good book vs. today's Laodicean Age.

Uh, you are only proving my case for me. I was saying that "whoredoms" mean idolatry. Yet, your Modern Bibles like the NLT and the Modern Textual Critic will say that God told Hosea to marry a prostitute.

Um God wasnt telling Hosea to fornicate.

I am greatly disturbed by your defense of something God would never tell a person to do.
The KJV says "a wife of whoredoms and a children of whoredoms." Obviously, the children are not prostitutes. So this means God is saying, "Go and marry a wife of a people who are into idolatry." Whoredom in the Bible is used about idolatry in several places in the Old Testament. So she would have to agree to serve the Living God and no longer serve her false gods if she were to marry Hosea. Yes, later in the story she became a prostitute. But that is not how she started out.

Not only that, but it would contradict Scripture, as well. This is because folks have fallen for what the Modern Greek Teachers have said.

Behold what the Scriptures say on this matter:

1 Corinthians 6:13-15
13 "...Now the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord; and the Lord for the body.
14 And God hath both raised up the Lord, and will also raise up us by his own power.
15 Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid."

So as we can see here in the New Testament God says we cannot fornicate because we would be joining ourselves with many members (many other people who have sex) of an harlot (prostitute).

There are sins that are exceptionally wrong in God's view.
It's why He destroyed two cities by fire and brimstone.
The sin of sodomy was exceptionally was exceptionally wrong in His sight.
Hence, why the two cities were destroyed by a miraculous miracle from God.

Um God wasnt telling Hosea to fornicate.

Have people ever seen the movie Pretty Woman. Basically a modern day retelling of Hosea

Though seriously children of whoredoms is just meaning love children, or children of those who werent married or of adultery. Yes its idolatry but its quite specifically promiscuous.

That Hosea later became a harlot (or prositute) is what people remember about the story and that God had told Hosea to marry her. So am not sure why you up in arms about that.

Jesus had a few prostitutes in his lineage...Rahab, Tamar, and of course...Mary Magdalene was a known sinner and people didnt like that he was friends with her or forgiven her. She wasnt specifically idolatrous. And woman at the well who had five husbands....

Why wouldn't God have someone marry a prostitute? He married one Himself.

Um God wasnt telling Hosea to fornicate.

Scripture verse or passage.

Scripture verse or passage.

Here's the first part of John 3 from the original 1611 KJV:

View attachment 259464

Note the two sidenotes saying, "or, from above" for "again" (againe). The modern printings of the KJV exclude these marginal notes, giving an artificial sense of certainty.

His covenant with Israel was the marriage. Their idolatry their whoredom. Despite this, God purchased Israel a second time through Christ. This is the imagery of Hosea. This is pictured in marriage between a man of God and a desperately sinful woman. And despite her continued sin, Hosea went to her and repurchased her as his own.

Judges 2:17 KJB And yet they would not hearken unto their judges, but they went a whoring
after other gods, and bowed themselves unto them: they turned quickly out of the way which
their fathers walked in, obeying the commandments of the LORD; but they did not so.

Exodus 34:15,16
Lest thou make a covenant with the inhabitants of the land, and they go a whoring after their
gods, and do sacrifice unto their gods, and one call thee, and thou eat of his sacrifice

Leviticus 17:7
And they shall no more offer their sacrifices unto devils, after whom they have gone
a whoring. This shall be a statute for ever unto them throughout their generations.

Psalm 73:27
For, lo, they that are far from thee shall perish: thou hast destroyed all them that go a whoring from thee.

I accept the Living God from His preserved in what it says instead.

So, the conclusion is:
the KJB is the Pope of all bibles and should have a special hat.

Yea I agree you have a great opinion in the thread that I didn't understand. Thanks