Does God Know From All Eternity Who Will Die Having Rejected Sound Doctrine?

I don't think God ever intended for Abraham to sacrifice Isaac. The word for "burnt offering" actually means "to offer up, to cause to ascend".
True, it is almost always used exclusively to refer to burnt offerings in the OT, since the rising smoke ascended. But it occurs twice elsewhere meaning stairs. If we offer up anything to God without burning it, it still ascends. I believe God to Abraham to offer up Isaac and Abraham misunderstood that God wanted Him to stop coddling Isaac and entrust him fully to God's protection. But God allowed abraham to continue under that misapprehension so that Abraham could be brought to the point of truly handing Isaac over to God, believing that God wuld keep His promise re Isaac by raising him from the dead. Once Abraham crossed that threshold of faith and handing over with the knife raised, God stopped him.

God is everlasting. Time is an attribute of God.

Hello, Paul. Yes, the Elect are more than one—plural. However, I believe that through His foreknowledge, God chose each of His Election on an individual basis. Thoughts?

And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose. For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

- Romans 8:28-30 (KJV)

i think you have this backwards.

because God is eternal, everlasting, immortal, time is NOT an attribute of God.
exactly thr opposite is true - just as 'temporal' is the antonym of 'eternal'

time is one of the pillars of creation,and He is Creator, not created time is a measurement of change, and He is unchanging.

awareness of sin does not make you guilty of that sin, as previously discussed.

God knows your sin.
that does not make God a sinner.

Foreknowledge simply means that God knows about things in the future. This should not be a new concept to anyone who has heard of a thing called "prophecy". Just because He knows things does not mean or imply that He forces things. The Bible is clear about every man needing to confess, repent, and believe. Foreknowledge in no way prevents or preempts this.

I merely wrote what scripture records. As far as answering, I don't know. God is angry over nonrepented sin of nonbelievers. If people are punished throughout eternity, maybe. Is God angry at His children, I think no. Even when they sin, His chastening reflects love.

I'm trying my best to answer when you address me. But I don't understand much of what you say. I can't follow your reasoning. I have no interest in harpooning anyone. You are all over the place. Don't get upset when someone can't follow.

So if you fall away, you were not called?

The concept of eternity is not in the Hebrew of Greek Biblical texts.

I wrote -

Let's apply this to your position.
Which of these statements do you reject?

1.God's holiness is an indispensible attribute according to scripture.
2.God's holiness means there has never been any moral evil in Him.
3.There has never been a time when God was not free of all moral evil.
4.God never changes.
5.God never learns anything.
6.Everything that is and happens has always been known by God. He never started to know anything.
7.All moral evil in the world was always in God's eternal mind, as was the performing of it, before creation began.

How do you reconcile 7 with 1-6 ?


How did God in your eternity know all the evil that would ever be devised before He created anything at all ,and yet God also be HOLY with all that evil imagination in Him that he had generated from Himself ? You don't see a holy God conjuring up every manner of evil on His own and keeping that in His heart always as any kind of contradiction? Open theism doesn't need to justify that kind of good God with self-generated evil imaginations.

as though, we can be like the most high?

You are not digging deep enough and logically enough. You claim God does not change. If God looking from your supposed timeless eternal state does not change in any way over all of history and seeing all of history from everlasting to everlasting in one timeless now, and he is angry with someone at some point in history, how does he escape from being angry with them from everlasting to everlasting. And if he is pleased with someone else at some point in time, how does He escape from being pleased with them from everlasting to everlasting.

Maybe it is your God who is chained in a cave and bound to His eternal inability to change. Open theism does not have these kinds of logical paradoxes to contend with.

Maybe if you don't understand something in someone's post, the Christ-like response is to gain understanding by asking question, rather than ad homs and straw manning. Luke 2:46.

There is not a word for word correspodence between languages. A word in Hebrew has a semantic range, a spectrum of meanings, and English language translators choose a word from English that matches the meaning from the Hebrew spectrum that they believe best conveys the Hebrew thought into English. Sometimes more than one Hebrew meaning makes sense, but the translator chooses one, possible the wrong one.. The result is a sentence that makes sense in English but may miss the meaning intended by the Hebrew. writer.

:You said, "He is saying He "declares" the END from the beginning. Not He waits to see it." Do you recognise that God does not say
I am God, and there is none like me,
10 observing the beginning to the end all at once,
and from ancient times everything not yet done,
saying, ‘My counsel shall stand,
and I will accomplish all my purpose,
by pre-determining everything between the beginning of the world and the purposed end.

But God says,
I am God, and there is none like me,
10 declaring the end from the beginning
and from ancient times things not yet done,
saying, ‘My counsel shall stand,
and I will accomplish all my purpose,’

God declaring "an end/a goal/a purpose" at some time in history, where the purpose was conceived at some earlier time in history from the goal being achieved, does not prove that God has eternal exhaustive foreknowledge. It merely says that God sometimes conceives of and is determined to bring about a goal and he will not fail to achieve those goals. Drawing any broader meaning from this text one needs to add ideas from outside the text and outside of the Bible itself..

more a case of "you thought I was just like you".

See I'm quoting scripture, you are adding to it. Do you not see this? You have to literally change what it says for it to mean what YOU want it to. If you can't see this plain as day with these last two comments then I don't know what else to tell you.

You said that "I" say, no see you're dead wrong there, I don't say, His word says. Again-

9 remember the former things of old;
for I am God, and there is no other;
I am God, and there is none like me,
10 declaring the end from the beginning
and from ancient times things not yet done,
saying, ‘My counsel shall stand,
and I will accomplish all my purpose,’

God says this, and lets point out the other part now too, He says "My counsel shall stand,and I will accomplish all my purpose".

So He says He declares and that His counsel will stand, and He will accomplish, but like a hypocrite then YOU SAY "No, He waits to see it".
So see you're accusing me of EXACTLY what YOU are doing. God says-
"I am God, and there is none like me, declaring the end from the beginning and from ancient times things not yet done"
and YOU say "He waits to see it"

So God waits? You think God is constrained by time? You know He created it right?

I'm not trying to be rude here but I'm not sure we are even talking about the same God here, and to be honest I'm not sure how to continue this conversation if you're just going to deny reality and scripture while accusing me of what you're blatantly doing. It's like trying to have a real conversation with a radical democrat in good faith that they'll be rational. When you just "make up" your argument it's a waste of everybody's time and I don't see the point unless you come with something more grounded in truth next go round. If not then have a great day.

God claims He does not change. I just agree with God. As far as whether that's deep or logical, I haven't considered past...is it true? The immutability of God is centered in His character, not His actions. Thus, God doesn't always have to act the same way, merely act always within His nature.

Exhaustive foreknowledge is one explanation for the fulfilment of prophecy, but is not the only explanation possible. Hence, exhaustive foreknowledge, though a popular explanation, has not been proven to be the explanation.

I agree, so when God does not destroy Nineveh, after he stated he would, he is just acting within his character. God did change his course of direction toward those people.

10 And God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and God repented of the evil, that he had said that he would do unto them; and he did it not.

God did not lie. God simply changed his mind of what he was going to do with them.