Past sins forgiven

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Bruce_Leiter

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Feb 17, 2023
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PSALMS 86:5

"For thou, Lord, art good, and ready to forgive; and plenteous in mercy unto all them that call upon thee."KJV.

REVELATION

3:19

"As many as I love, I rebuke and chasten: be zealous therefore, and repent."KJV

Godly sorrow brings godly repentance; do not think that whatever sins we MIGHT commit in the future are already forgiven and need NOT BE CONFESSED TO GOD & REPENTED OF @ the time of revelation & conviction!
Paul says very clearly in Romans 3 and Galatians 1-4 that all our sins have been justified when we first believe. Justification is a legal term meaning that God our just Judge declares us "not guilty" and "right with him' in his court because Jesus took our guilty verdict on himself. However, you are correct in your statement in the sense that in our daily lives, we need to continue to repent of our sins, because we still have sinful natures in us.
 

NilsForChrist

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Jan 31, 2023
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Yep....this verse may read in English as past tense....but it's a tense in Early Latin/Greek that covers past, present, and future tense all at the same time. A tense that doesn't exist and has not existed in English.
Amen.
 

Bruce_Leiter

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Feb 17, 2023
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.



There are actually well-meaning folks at large sincerely believing that quote
from Hos 6:6 repeals the entire God-given book of Leviticus: yet Jesus said:


Matt 5:17-19 . . Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the
Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the
truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least
stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything
is accomplished.


. . . Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and
teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven,
but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in
the kingdom of heaven.


Hos 6:6, in its context with Hos 6:4-10, condemns Ephraim for cruelty and
thinking they could make up for it with atonements. No; the rituals, the
sacrifices, and the holy days of obligation etc. were never intended as
substitutes for good conduct. (cf. Isa 1:10-20)


* I can't help but wonder sometimes how many people come to church on
Easter Sunday thinking that will make up for a whole year living like the world.
_
Yes, the eternal form of the law for Israel has gone away through Jesus, but the inner principles continue on for the church. For example, the law saying we may not eat certain unclean foods is gone because Jesus and Paul both said that all foods are clean for us. However, those laws in Leviticus 11 have an inner meaning given by Paul that we need to clean up the uncleanness in our lives and replace them with godly qualities (for example, Paul's examples in Colossians 3 based on Jesus' resurrection power [verse 1]).
 

Cameron143

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Yes, the eternal form of the law for Israel has gone away through Jesus, but the inner principles continue on for the church. For example, the law saying we may not eat certain unclean foods is gone because Jesus and Paul both said that all foods are clean for us. However, those laws in Leviticus 11 have an inner meaning given by Paul that we need to clean up the uncleanness in our lives and replace them with godly qualities (for example, Paul's examples in Colossians 3 based on Jesus' resurrection power [verse 1]).
How do we clean up the uncleanness? How do we acquire godly qualities?
 

Underwhosewings

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Jan 19, 2023
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Australia
Romans 1:21-24,26-32 KJV
Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. [22] Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools, [23] And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things. [24] Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves: [26] For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: [27] And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet. [28] And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient; [29] Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers, [30] Backbiters, haters of God, despiteful, proud, boasters, inventors of evil things, disobedient to parents, [31] Without understanding, covenantbreakers, without natural affection, implacable, unmerciful: [32] Who knowing the judgment of God, that they which commit such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but have pleasure in them that do them.
 

Chester

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May 23, 2016
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Yep....this verse may read in English as past tense....but it's a tense in Early Latin/Greek that covers past, present, and future tense all at the same time. A tense that doesn't exist and has not existed in English.
Huh? I really don't care about any "Latin" tenses, but the Greek tenses are very important here, since that is what the original manuscripts of the New Testament were written in. But a Greek tense that covers "past, present, and future tenses all at the same time.?" I have been studying Greek for a long time and have never heard anyone or any resource make that claim before! Could you please tell me what Greek tense this is and what verb you are talking about. And then where do you get your information on this Greek tense?
 

JohnDB

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Jan 16, 2021
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Huh? I really don't care about any "Latin" tenses, but the Greek tenses are very important here, since that is what the original manuscripts of the New Testament were written in. But a Greek tense that covers "past, present, and future tenses all at the same time.?" I have been studying Greek for a long time and have never heard anyone or any resource make that claim before! Could you please tell me what Greek tense this is and what verb you are talking about. And then where do you get your information on this Greek tense?
Exactly what Theological position are you arguing and questioning me about? That those who believed AFTER Jesus ascended are too late to join the party?

its the "perfect" aortist tense.
And Early Latin is almost indistinguishable from Koine Greek. But it does allow for the construction of new words and phrases. Indeed Latin became the language of the Roman Empire.
 

Chester

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May 23, 2016
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Exactly what Theological position are you arguing and questioning me about? That those who believed AFTER Jesus ascended are too late to join the party?

its the "perfect" aortist tense.
And Early Latin is almost indistinguishable from Koine Greek. But it does allow for the construction of new words and phrases. Indeed Latin became the language of the Roman Empire.
Oh, OK.
 

Underwhosewings

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I thought he might believe in Judaism. He did not accept most of the N.T.
The LORD is speaking here about himself, not Moses.
The LORD says,
“I have given it to you”

Leviticus 17:1,11 KJV
And the Lord spake unto Moses, saying, [11] For the life of the flesh is in the blood: and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls: for it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul.
I often used to wonder how the Lord Jesus Christ was able to forgive sins, when He had not yet gone to the cross and laid down His life and shed the atoning blood of God.
Then God opened my understanding how that it was in His mind all along and He considered it done.
That’s why he said to Moses, “I have given” not I will or I am going to.

It’s the blood of the everlasting covenant

Leviticus 17:1,11 KJV
And the Lord spake unto Moses, saying, [11] For the life of the flesh is in the blood: and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls: for it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul.

Hebrews 13:20 KJV
Now the God of peace, that brought again from the dead our Lord Jesus, that great shepherd of the sheep, through the blood of the everlasting covenant,
Hebrews 10:10-12 KJV

By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
[11] And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins:
[12] But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
 

Cameron143

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Mar 1, 2022
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Anyway I also wrote
#234
Waiting for everyones approval
Or whatever.
That's the correct understanding. If God has purposed something, it will come to pass. Since God exists outside of time and cannot lie, purpose equals fulfillment.
 

Bruce_Leiter

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Feb 17, 2023
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How do we clean up the uncleanness? How do we acquire godly qualities?
By persistently claiming the victory of Jesus' death and resurrection for death to our old-nature qualities and life to our new-nature qualities as in Paul's lists in Colossians 3 (based on the power of Jesus' resurrection in verse one) and Ephesians 4.