Some of the reasons I pulled away from Dispensationalism.

Yes the word dispensation is in the Scriptures . I too believe in God's dispensations.
Here are Scofield's notes of what he believed about dispensations


DISPENSATION
A dispensation is a period of time during which man is tested in respect of obedience to some specific revelation of the will of God. Seven such dispensations are distinguished in Scripture. (See Scofield on Gen_1:28), note 5.

And God blessed them
The First Dispensation: Innocency. Man was created in innocency, placed in a perfect environment, subjected to an absolutely simple test, and warned of the consequence of disobedience. The woman fell through pride; the man deliberately. 1Ti_2:14 God restored His sinning creatures, but the dispensation of innocency ended in the judgment of the Expulsion Gen_3:24 See, for the other dispensations;
Conscience (See Scofield on Gen_3:23).
Human Government (See Scofield on Gen_8:21).
Promise (See Scofield on Gen_12:1).
Law (See Scofield on Exo_19:8).
Grace (See Scofield on Joh_1:17).
Kingdom (See Scofield on Eph_1:10).

I do not find any place in Scripture that says, expounds, etc of these ideas of Scofield's. Is there any Scripture passage says what Scofield says?

The 4 times the word dispensation is used, as you posted, The Strong's # is G3622
οἰκονομία
oikonomia
oy-kon-om-ee'-ah
From G3623; administration (of a household or estate); specifically a (religious) “economy”: - dispensation, stewardship

Some prophecies are 'done and dusted'. For example, Jesus already came and fulfilled hundreds of specific prophecies. By what criteria would you determine whether some prophesied event will or won't "happen again"?

Actually Dispensationalism FIRST takes those letters in their plain literal sense, and then some try to project a prophetic application to them. Both can be true, if we see (for example) the current apostasy in Christendom reflected in the condition of the Laodicean church. As we know, there are layers in Scripture, but that does not preclude the plain literal sense.

No one is so naive as to expect the Bible to say "Scofield is correct" or "There are seven dispensations in the Bible"! One can use his or her own discernment to see that there are indeed several biblical dispensations which generally correspond to the covenants in the Bible. However, "the dispensation of the fulness of times" does not have any specific covenant tied into it, although indirectly it is an extension of the New Covenant period. I would differ from Scofield in some particulars but that does not change the fact that God has had different ways of relating to humanity at different times. The most obvious is the Dispensation of the Law of Moses vs the Dispensation of Grace under Christ. We are still in the "Age of Grace" since the Gospel continues to be preached at this time bringing the grace of God to all mankind. But this will not last forever.

I find this comment confusing. Can you break this down?

This is a really important part: a dispensation is an economy, or, how the grace of God vests among men. It is fruitless to attempt to work within an old economy once the new has been given.

You seem like a reasonable person that is willing to speak logic for logic. In your view, how does dispensationalism address Romans 9 and Galatians 3?

Specifically we see the concept that only those in Christ are the heirs of Abraham's promises. In some dispensationalism views that have been advocated on this site, there have been false claims presented that Christ is not the sole heir of the promises to Abraham (in contradiction to Gal 3:16).

How do you reconcile that contradiction?

Dispensations is the teaching that God has dispensed His truth to mankind throughout human history, not all at once. What God dispensed to Abraham was not the same as what God had dispensed to Moses, etc...

What God gave to man to be responsible for at any given time in history. Recognizing these different time periods and audience will help us understand what God wants from us today as part of the body of Christ after the cross.

Joh_18:36 Jesus answered, My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence.

(emphasis mine)

I don’t… and didn’t

I merely made a statement in regard to the OP statement, which was → “Thinking a Scofield Bible was THEE Word of God.”

I then went on about different versions we have…but I apparently struck a nerve with someone #5 regarding the KJV who probably knew what I was referencing, but rather than ask, he decided to use it as a springboard to project his agenda…….

The whole thing on originals was not my focus. …..and I am sorry that I allowed this to sidetrack the heart behind the OP.

Referring back to posts # 3&4 ... Do any of you see a difference in the Kingdom of God and the Kingdom of Heaven? Has anyone search the Scriptures to read about the Kingdom... Does the Bible tell us what His kingdom is? if so where?

The law was given to show the Jews that they and all people are sinners in need of Gods' mercy. And Jesus expected everyone to fulfill the purpose of the law by repenting and loving God and mankind.

The law was given so Israel would be a nation separated unto God. The sacrificial system was added to forgive sins against the law.

No sacrifice…no forgiveness of sin.

Kingdom of heaven = Kingdom promised to Israel come down to earth with the rightful King on the throne of David.

Kingdom of God = Spiritual kingdom that lives within the believer.

Both were at hand during the earthly life of Christ.

There is no difference. The Kingdom is all around us, but people can't see it or become a citizen of it until they are born of Gods'Spirit

Thanks Beckie for the heads up. You know I had a strong feeling that the left behind issue was going to be an issue in this for you. I didn't expect that would have been as you have cited it here. My word - sister.

Fear

Now I see as through a wood darkly,
Trees all panted round,
And in the midst uncertain thought,
An unsuspecting sound.

by Rhomphaeam

Well I'm having a coffee then ill pay attention.

Scripture support please?

He did. In Greek and Hebrew. The copies that we have would be considered "preserved by God" in the sense that you seem to be applying to an English translation that relied on these copies to translate to English which would mean those copies are the authority and not the English translation. But you probably knew that.

I think you are a great writer. Don't underestimate yourself. I was getting a good vibe from your story. An uncommonly good vibe. Your writing style stands out and you aren't even really trying. You should write your story as a book and leave it for your grand children.

I just started reading this book "The End of History: Pentecostals and a Fresh Approach to the Apacolypse" by Robert Menzies a well known scholar on Lucan Pneumatology with a background in the Assemblies of God. He promises to present scholarly reasons why the AG should improve their theology about Eschatology and dispensationalism inherited from their early days.

It just came out this year. I expect it will stir up some conversations in the AG this year. He is a well respected theologian.

https://www.amazon.com/End-History-.../ref=tmm_kin_swatch_0?_encoding=UTF8&qid=&sr=

First of all, the word kingdom and the word God is not the same. Two things that are different are not the same. God is a spirit. Heaven is a created place. Let's start with...

Genesis 1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.