Documentary—7 Pretrib Problems and the Prewrath Rapture

You don't think that all of the 'tribulation' over the past ~2000 years (including up to some point in the future after millions/billions are beheaded for not worshipping the beast) - collectively - is worse than anything before it or after it?

Jesus "defined" the phrase "great tribulation" (Matthew 24:21) - yet, He did not call it [The] 'Great Tribulation'. Only we do that. He simply said that 'great tribulation' would occur.

You aren't even close to having any type of Escholtolical understandings.

When does it begin?

When does it end?

The Bible tells us both...

Mat 24:21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.

He spoke of a period of great tribulation that was more severe than any other tribulation past or future which designates it as "the great tribulation" in the English language as it is a specific and unique period. "The great tribulation" is fully accurate language.

The 'great tribulation' begins after the Abomination of Desolation is standing in the holy place. This is a reference to the Daniel 9-12 and Matthew 24:15.

It ends at the Day of the Lord at the 6th seal I believe. Cross reference Isaiah 13:9-13, Matthew 24:29, and Revelation 6:12-17.

Yes - the way we use the phrase is valid (to 'define' a particular span of time so that we may understand what we mean in discussion when we refer to it). Nonetheless, that is somewhat beside-the-point...

The Bible shows us in no uncertain terms - beyond a shadow of a doubt - that what Jesus called "great tribulation" in Matthew 24:21 began circa 70 A.D.

Mat 24:21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.

He spoke of a period of great tribulation that was more severe than any other tribulation past or future which designates it as "the great tribulation" in the English language as it is a specific and unique period. "The great tribulation" is fully accurate language.

It did not start then nor has started because it's total length is 42 months, then Christ returns.

However we choose to interpret the language, we still must address the questions 'When did it begin?' and 'When did it end?'.

Matthew 24:21 tells us when it began and Matthew 24:29 tells us when it ends.

(along with the parallel verses)

And, how did you determine that?

Mat 24:15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand

When it would begin is found in 24:15 when AoD is visibly seen. That is another name for AC or the man of sin. He hasn't appeared yet.

The key to understanding Matthew 24:15 / Mark 13:14 is/are the parenthetical phrase(s).

Also - all three accounts of the Olivet Discourse are about the same discourse. The Luke account is not telling a different story than the other two.

Revelation 13 tells us the length of GT, with Christ returning at it's end matching the end of GT in the OD

Matthew 24:15-20 / Mark 13:14-18 / Luke 21:20-23a are all saying the exact same thing.

And, it is referring to the events of circa 70 A.D.

Revelation 13:5 does not define the exact-total-length of the GT from-start-to-end.

A common mistake that people make - it is an assumption only.

Matthew 24:15-20 / Mark 13:14-18 / Luke 21:20-23a are all saying the exact same thing.

And, it is referring to the events of circa 70 A.D.

Impossible since Jesus said that one generation would see all things he described which included second coming and the angels gathering the elect.

Mat 24:29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

Immediately after the tribulation will the sun and moon go dark and the stars will fall from heaven, all being global events. Did that happen after the Roman's destroyed the city and temple? No.

Mat 24:30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

All the tribes of the Earth mourning and seeing Christ coming from heaven to the Earth. Again, a global event. Did that happen in Ad70? No.

Mat 24:31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

The gathering of the elect by angels in Ad70? No. The disciples would have been the elect of their generation and they certainly weren't gathered by angels. This is the same event known as the Rapture but it didn't happen in Ad70 and hasn't happened yet.

Mat 24:32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:
Mat 24:33 So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors.
Mat 24:34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.


"all these things" includes verses 29-31 which shows the second coming and the gathering of the saints. Other scriptures tell us this timeframe is also the time when the dead in Christ are resurrected. Did either of those things take place in Ad70? No.

None of those things happened in the lives of the disciples proving he was NOT talking about their generation not passing before "all these things" occurred.

No, it does define total length of GT. There is only 42 months then Jesus will return and defeat the beasts and imprison satan

Where does it [actually] say that the start of that 42 months is aligned with the beginning of the GT and that the end of that 42 months is aligned with the end of the GT?