Is it a sin to drink alcohol

((in re: Proverbs 31:6 "give"))

why should it be apparent that the meaning contradicts the language?
is that how the scripture normally is - it means the opposite of what it says?
((wow maybe i've been reading this all wrong the whole time))

there is zero doubt this word is an imperative form.
i'm really confused by you saying it ought to be obvious that it's not what it obviously is??

no need for you to make slanderous personal attacks.
why would you do that?

((in re: is scripture directing the one who reads it and believes it to do evil or to do righteousness, in Proverbs 31:6-7?))


you think the book of wisdom is teaching neither wickedness nor righteousness? 'far from it' ?? or is it only your thoughts which are 'far from' the scripture? please speak plainly; your comments engender confusion.

it is an imperative command: give strong drink and wine to those who are brokenhearted and ready to perish. it gives a reason why the command is written: so that they may forget their poverty and misery.

what do you think?
is the word of God not good?
is that an hard question?
do you find this too difficult?

This is what I was talking about. Why do I say that? Because it has a Lexicon in the back of the concordance.

And you are wearing blinders... you can see nothing but your own pharisaical beliefs....

Riddle me this..... IF the only fruit of the vine "allowed" for believers to drink was "new" wine, or freshly pressed juice.... since the grape harvest only lasted about 2 or at the most 3 months, and freshly pressed grape juice only lasts about 6 or 7 days before beginning to ferment.... what did the people of that time drink during the remaining 9 months of the year, with all the wedding feasts, and religious events (sabbaths, etc) happening year-round?

Please try to limit your response to a simple statement... not a whole wall of cut and paste drivel. It's a tough request, but please try to keep it brief.

It is not meant to be a 'slanderous personal attack' but is just what I see you doing.

Man cannot serve two Kings, if the LORD is your King then why are you telling me that I am obligated to 'give' by the imperative command of King Lemuel.

Prov 31:1 "The words of king Lemuel, the prophecy that his mother taught him."

So yes, upon principle, trying to turn man's advice into the word of God is the epitome of folly.

is it your opinion that Proverbs 31 is written in order to be rejected and ignored?
is that generally your view of why God inspires scripture?

these are facts:

• Proverbs 31 is scripture. it is righteous instruction for wisdom & knowledge of the Holy.
• in verse 6, 'give' is in imperative form.

is scripture recommending to the one who reads and believes to do something which is evil or is it encouraging the one who reads and believes to do something that is good?

is this an hard question for you?
why?

is it your opinion that Proverbs is 'a wicked man's advice' ?

is this your idea of wisdom? reject the book of Proverbs as merely foolish human teaching?

Reading all of these posts can drive a man to drink.

This guy has gone off the deep end in desperation - have a beer and give ya head a shake man.

Any ignorance of Noah's part obviously did not extend to his ability to make wine. I don't believe that distillation is part of the wine making process. Your reasoning ability on this topic is ludicrious.

Totally agree, it appears Noah drank himself to sleep then to awaken out from his wine drinking.

(Gen 9:24 And Noah awoke from his wine, and knew what his younger son had done unto him)

I had given this text earlier:

A definition that may be helpful to you:

Preservation by the Jews:

Furthermore:


Feel free to read more here - http://healthandfood.yolasite.com/preserving-juice-in-ancient-times.php

Modern "Judaism" -

I knew it was too much to ask...

"Jer_48:11 Moab hath been at ease from his youth, and he hath settled on his lees, and hath not been emptied from vessel to vessel, neither hath he gone into captivity: therefore his taste remained in him, and his scent is not changed."

What could this archaic gibberish possibly have to do with freshly pressed grape juice? A prophecy about the destruction of Moab somehow leads you to think that grape juice will not start to ferment after a week or so?

""... "Here was laid up corn in large quantities, and such as would subsist men for a long time; here was also wine and oil in abundance, with all kinds of pulse and dates heaped up together; all which Eleazar found there, when he and his Sicarii got possession of the fortress by treachery. These fruits were also fresh and full ripe, and not inferior to such fruits newly laid in, although they were little short of a hundred years from the laying in (of) these provisions (by Herod), till the place was taken by the Romans; nay, indeed, when the Romans got possession of those fruits that were left, they found them not corrupted all that while: nor should we be mistaken, if we supposed that the air was here the cause of their enduring so long. ..." - Josephus, Jewish Wars 7, 8, 4, trans. William Whiston, Josephus Complete Works (Grand Rapids, 1974), p. 599. "

Are you saying the Jews had some kind of magic process that goes against nature, and preserved fresh grape juice for almost 100 years? Or, perhaps the "fruits" that lasted that long were the dates and "pulse"... whatever that is? And that the "wine" lasted that long because it was fermented already?
And, even if that WAS true, that it was commonly practiced in every village in the middle east in the 1st century?

You are truly out where the buses don't run any more with this whole fantasy... I wish you well.

or.... maybe it was aliens that preserved the grape juice for them...... SMH.

Just. 'wow'. You just called scripture, written by Baruch on behalf of Jeremiah the Prophet, 'archaic gibberish' (yes, I know you refer to the KJB English (you know, that English which is spoken by most of the world, from UK, Europe, to China, to Australia, to the united States and Canada, etc).

No. If I had meant that I would have said it, or cited an 'authority' for such, but since I clearly did not, I am not saying any such thing. I am saying that the Jews (etc) were smarter than you (and many others) give them credit for, and understood, by the wisdom of God (having been the keepers of the oracles of God), how to do such things. Some of that process is described in the literature and links I provided for you already. "Magick" was forbidden to them, even as it is to us who are Christian.

Most of the Jews were agricultural, and even as the Hebrews had come out of Egypt, knew their preservation methods (like mummification, etc) also. The Jews (Hebrews) were unique to most populaces as they had their presence in many foreign countries, and could also learn of their preservation methods as well. Likewise, when they were conquered or captured by various nations, and had to learn (as Daniel) certain of their wisdom and schooling. This too increased their knowledge base.

Consider also the reign of Solomon, and the wisdom bestowed during that time, and handed down on all matter of things.

I wonder how many who say its a sin are baptists