Did Jesus ever tell us that we no longer need to keep the law of Moses?

That isn't what the 613 laws man named were? I see I didn't say what I was stating. Sorry it was supposed to be in reply to something, I think. That is what I was asking, not about the revelance, but the truth of what they consisted of.

Awesome, thank you, I didn't even ask!!!! I was just asking if the breakdown of the sixonethree laws I listed was correct, but this is great.

Can you not understand that Judaism is not Christianity, the laws were done away with on the cross, and Judaism (an ism) does not concern probably 99.9% of the world population?

Don't you think they are better?

well, you can certainly have your opinion , though I would advise you to use facts in something as important as your eternal destiny .

the fact is , no law of any kind will lead you to salvation. get all this law, law , law stuff out of your mind and trust Jesus for salvation.

Law keeping will not save you. command keeping will not save you. Sabbath keeping will not save you. the only thing that will is faith and trust in Christ. that is the only way into the Kingdom.

Thr law of the kingdom is alive

Its just not the law of moses.

Jesus fulfilled that law. And then gave us a much better law

Yes, never came to saving faith. I like how the Amplified reads - For if we go on deliberately and willingly sinning after once acquiring the knowledge of the Truth, there is no longer any sacrifice left to atone for [our] sins [no further offering to which to look forward]. The present tense indicates this is their lifestyle, their habitual practice. It describes an abiding state of willful, deliberate sinning. Those who are born of God are not sinless, without fault or defect, flawless, 100% of the time, but sinning is not their willful, habitual, continual practice once they are born again. *1 John 3:9 - No one who is born of God practices sin.. Believers become new creations in Christ "the old things have passed away behold and new things have come." (2 Corinthians 5:17)

Although the writer includes himself in this warning (if we sin willfully) note that he switches pronouns in Hebrews 10:29 to "he" and at the end of the chapter (Hebrews 10:39) the writer makes it clear that he considers himself a true believer by including himself in the "we" who do not "draw back to perdition." But we are not of those who draw back to perdition, but of those who believe to the saving of the soul. Those who draw back to perdition do not believe to the saving of the soul and those who believe to the saving of the soul do not draw back to perdition. So regardless of what you think, NOWHERE does the Bible us the words, "lose salvation." For further study see - https://www.preceptaustin.org/hebrews_1026-27

Sanctified in Hebrews 10:29 is not the same as sanctified in Hebrews 10:14. The one proves eternal (Hebrews 10:14) and the other proves guilty of apostasy (Hebrews 10:29). So once again, the writer of Hebrews in verse 10 said "sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all" (Hebrews 10:10) and in verse 14, we read, "perfected for all time those who are sanctified." (Hebrews 10:14) So even though the reference to "the blood of the covenant that sanctified him" in verse 29 "on the surface" appears to be referring to a genuine Christian, this overlooks the fact that the word translated "sanctified" (which is the verb form of the adjective "holy") which means "set apart," and doesn't necessarily refer to salvation.

*In 1 Corinthians 7:14, Paul uses it to specifically refer to non-Christians who are "sanctified" or "set apart" by their believing spouse (and by this Paul does not mean that they are saved). A non-Christian can be "set apart" from other non-Christians without experiencing salvation as Paul explained. So the word "sanctified" means to be "set apart." If the word "sanctified" simply meant saved, then you would have to say that the Sabbath was saved (Genesis 2:3), the tabernacle was saved (Exodus 29:43), the Lord was saved (Leviticus 10:3), the Father saved the Son (John 10:36) and many other things that do not line up with scripture.

In verse 39, the writer of Hebrews sets up the CONTRAST that makes it clear to me that he was referring to unbelievers, not saved people: But we are not of those who draw back to perdition, but of those who believe to the saving of the soul. Those who draw back to perdition do not believe to the saving of the soul and those who believe to the saving of the soul do not draw back to perdition.

So after considering the CONTEXT, it seems most likely that "he was sanctified" should be understood in the sense of someone who had been "set apart" or identified as an active participant in the Hebrew Christian community of believers, but then renounces his identification with other believers, by rejecting the "knowledge of the truth" that he had received, and trampling under foot the work and the person of Christ himself. This gives evidence that his identification with the Hebrew Christian community of believers was only superficial and that he was not a genuine believer. For further study see - https://www.preceptaustin.org/hebrews_1028-29

I find it interesting that the KJV reads - ..but if any man draw back, my soul shall have no pleasure in him. The NKJV reads - ..if anyone draws back, My soul has no pleasure in him.” The NIV reads - And I take no pleasure in the one who shrinks back. Even if the "he" mentioned in relation to the shrinking back is the "righteous one" regardless, the first clause is clarified by the second clause in verse 39 - But "we" are not of those who draw back to perdition, but of those who believe to the saving of the soul.

The Laws of God exist to convict the sinner!
The Laws of God exist to delight the righteous!

The Laws of God exist to illuminate the misdeeds of the wicked; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness, idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies, envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like. THERE ARE LAWS AGAINST THESE Gal 5:19-21.

The Laws of God exist to illuminate the deeds of the righteous; love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith, meekness, temperance: THERE ARE NO LAWS AGAINST THESE-JUST FOR THEM! Gal 5:22-23

So In verse;

Gal 5:18 KJV But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.

It speaks to the main point of being “led by the Spirit”! This one thing is synonomous with “the laws written upon our hearts”

Remember the warning:

2Pe 3:15-17 NIV Bear in mind that our Lord's patience means salvation, just as our dear brother Paul also wrote you with the wisdom that God gave him. (16) He writes the same way in all his letters, speaking in them of these matters. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do the other Scriptures, to their own destruction. (17) Therefore, dear friends, since you already know this, be on your guard so that you may not be carried away by the error of lawless men and fall from your secure position.

Paul’s meaning is that the Law is always there to bless or curse! If you are led by the Spirit you are not under/cursed by the Law! If you are carnal/wicked you are under/cursed by the Law! This is the point throughout Paul’s epistles, but ignorant and unstable people distort this to read "the Law is gone! Even if you sin, it’s GONE!" This they do to their own destruction!

(Jer 31:33 KJV) But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
(Heb 8:10 KJV) For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
(Eze 36:26 KJV) A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh.
(Psa 51:10 KJV) Create in me a clean heart, O God; and renew a right spirit within me.
(Pro 4:23 KJV) Keep thy heart with all diligence; for out of it are the issues of life.
(Psa 37:31 KJV) The law of his God is in his heart; none of his steps shall slide.
(Mat 22:37 KJV) Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
(Psa 119:11 KJV) Thy word have I hid in mine heart, that I might not sin against thee.

The law of god is here to convict the sinner of their need for christ.

It can not delight the righteous. Because accoding to the law. NO ONE IS RIGHTEOUS! NO NOT ONE!

I so pray you would see this

God given.

They are compilation done by man.

Right..I'm not sure exactly how you are viewing this though...they were a shadow of things to come at the time they were instituted, and were fulfilled in Christ. The substance (fulfillment) is Christ.

By the way, I do not hold the view that some of the festivals remain unfulfilled as some Hebrew Roots Movement and others teach. I believe they have all been fulfilled in Christ already.

Heb 10:1-4 is actually instructive, too...it refers to the ceremonial aspects of the Mosaic Law as shadows of things to come, as well. The inference is that Sabbath, festivals, new moons are ceremonial aspects of the Mosaic Law..something most HRM types will deny.

Unfortunately what you're implying - The Law = Sin - Paul hoped his readers of Romans would absolutely avoid thinking...

Romans 7:7
7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.

The phrase "The power of sin" does not connect or define the law as "sin"...or imply that the law is sin's supporter, even in the slightest.

The phrase means "the sin in us, once it knows a commandment, is immediately empowered and strengthened to disobey it".

Why?

Because we have rebellious hearts. And had the person never heard the commandment they wouldn't be motivated to break it.

...and as Paul says, this PROVES the law is good and that we are carnal/sinful.

Take a child (or even an adult) and give them a rule to follow or a boundary to stay within that they never had before (i.e. "don't do this or that") and they'll instantly be triggered in heart to do that exact thing, many times right in front of you in defiance, just because you told them what not to do.

It's possible they never even dreamed of doing the opposite, but because you told them what NOT to do they are compelled to rebel.

The power or strength of their rebellion is your rule/boundary.

So is your rule or boundary wrong or bad? No, but their rebellious nature is strengthened by your rule because the heart is evil and has not been circumcised.

Again, as Paul emphatically says, "the law is good." So to suggest or infer otherwise is unscriptural.

This is why the very law that the heart rebels against must be etched on that heart, otherwise there will continue to be death. Why? Because sin (i.e. rebellion specifically against the law of Yah) brings death.

The wages of sin is death.

A symbol of what?

If your asking,, How can you say you know the law?

A symbol of mankind's issue, and Gods response to mankind's issue

Only if Paul is.

The law is the power of sin.

That's scripture, and that's all i said.

Do you not agree that the law is the power of sin?

Does sin have any more power over you?

What are the implications of your answer?

It's called context. As before, I can assume I know what you're talking about or I can ask you what you mean, and then say whether you're correct or incorrect or agree or disagree.

The Old Covenant was not a symbol of mankind's issue. That is incorrect. It was a marriage between Israel and Yah.

And everything they went through was an EXAMPLE.

Maybe if I start to say it in other languages as it is not getting through in English. In which post of mine did you read that? You wouldn't make that statement if you hadn't would you? As a Christian I am not to ask about the OT? Anything else I am not to question in your opinion? Really, was there a need to be rude?

If this is so why do you accuse me of calling the law sin when all i did was quote the scripture that says 'the law is the power of sin'?

Did God write the power of sin in your heart? Is that a hard question?

Ask this question again in your own words to share what you think it means, then I'll answer in agreement or disagreement.