Did you notice that Nicodemus was already born?
Of course.
Why do you think GOD had John the baptize born 6 months before JESUS was born? ALL FOR NOTHING???
Not for nothing. John the Baptist was the forerunner who prepared the way for Jesus. (Mark 1:1-9)
John had one mission,
Matthew 3:15-16
15 And Jesus answering said unto him, suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:
Why was JESUS baptized, wasn't he born of HIS mother?
Jesus was baptized
to fulfill all righteousness. His baptism inaugurated His ministry and was a necessary part of the righteousness that He secured for sinners.
Did you know being baptized in for remission of sins?
Baptism is done in regard to/on the basis of remission of sins received upon repentance. (Matthew 3:11; Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3; 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31). Baptism does not obtain remission of sins.
Did you know when we are born naturally that is when we get our sins?
Psalm 51:5 - Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin my mother conceived me.
End result you are saying things that are not true, your wrapping them up together like it's one process.
What you are saying when we are born we are not born in sin at all!!! NOT TRUE.
Straw man argument.
You are right the second baptism is of the spirit and this is what happens when JESUS HIMSELF FILLS US.
Acts 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
You don't seem to understand the difference between receiving the gift of the Holy Spirit (
Acts 10:45;
11:17;
15:8;
Romans 5:5 etc..) which is the permanent indwelling of the Holy Spirit at the moment of salvation for all believers (
1 Corinthians 12:13;
Ephesians 1:13) and being filled with the Holy Spirit which is a subsequent experience which can be repeated and where the Holy Spirit controls and guides every aspect of us and providing empowerment for ministry, which may (Acts 2:4; 10:46; 19:6) or may not (Acts 4:8; 4:31; 7:55; 13:9) be accompanied by speaking in tongues. Not ALL speak in tongues and the answer to Paul's rhetorical question in 1 Corinthians 12:29-30 is NO.
Can't be reborn without BOTH which is what JESUS is saying in John 3:5!
In
John 3:5, Jesus said born of water and the Spirit and NOT born of baptism and the Spirit. Also, consider what Jesus said in (
John 4:10,
14;
7:37) and see the connection between
living water, the Holy Spirit and eternal life. Notice in
John 4:10, Jesus said, "If you knew the gift of God, and who it is who says to you, 'Give Me a
drink,' you would have asked Him, and He would have given you
living water." In
John 4:14, Jesus said, "but whoever
drinks of the
water that I shall give him will
never thirst. But the
water that I shall give him will become in him a
fountain of water springing up into everlasting life. *Jesus connects this living water here with everlasting life. *Living water is not water baptism. In
1 Corinthians 12:13, we also read -
..drink into one Spirit. So, to automatically read "baptism" into
John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is
unwarranted.
JESUS SAYS who trumps what you say,
Mark 16:16-17
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
17 And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
What I say is in harmony with what Jesus says.
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved
(general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who
does not believe will be condemned.
The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely necessary for salvation.
Condemnation rests on unbelief and not on a lack of baptism. *NOWHERE does the Bible say, "baptized or condemned."
If water baptism was absolutely required for salvation, then we would expect Jesus to mention it in the following verses. (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) Yet what is the
ONE requirement that Jesus mentions
NINE different times in each of these complete statements *
BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
John 3:18 - He who
believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO)
does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO)
because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
These signs in
Mark 16:17 were promised to the apostolic community (
Matthew 10:1) which were not uncommon in the early church age but were not promised to all believers in all ages. (
1 Corinthians 12:27-30) The passage is not saying that these signs will accompany every single individual believer in all ages. We do see various confirming signs like these happening among various believers during the early apostolic era. For example, we see:
Some believers casting out demons (
Acts 5:16,
8:7,
16:16-18,
19:11-12)
Some believers speaking in tongues (
Acts 2:4,
10:46,
19:6,
1 Corinthians 12:10,
12:28)
Some believers laying hands on the sick and healing them (
Acts 9:17,
28:8)
One believer bit by a snake and not harmed (
Acts 28:3-5)
No examples of believers drinking deadly poison and remaining unharmed. So, how many of these signs have you exhibited? These signs were to the early apostolic era rather than for all believers for all time.
Which AGAIN is what HE says in John 3:5!
That is your eisegesis. Jesus did not even mention baptism in John 3:5.
Peter say that is what happens when JESUS fills you with the Holy Ghost or Spirit,
Acts 2:33 Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear.
Not every experience in scripture of being filled with the Holy Spirit resulted in speaking in tongues. (Acts 4:8; 4:31; 7:55; 13:9) You have been deceived by your church to believe that man is saved by water baptism using a rigid baptism formula of reciting the specific words (in Jesus' name) only during the baptism followed by speaking in tongues. No baptism, no rigid baptism formula, so speaking in tongues, no salvation according to the false gospel of your church, which is very similar to the false gospel of Oneness Pentecostalism.
See, what you SEE AND HEAR.
If you have been filled you would know it, have you been, I bet not or you would not be saying things that are not true.
I have been filled with the Holy Spirit and spoke the word of God boldly, just like we see in Acts 4:31, but I did not speak in tongues, like these Gentiles did in Acts 10:46, which was for a specific purpose as a sign to the Jewish believers present that God has accepted these Gentiles into the Church, along with the Jews. Again, not everyone speaks in tongues. (1 Corinthians 12:29-30)