Loss of salvation???

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John6-37s.png

John 6:37
:)


Magenta, have you ever read 1 Corinthians 11


14 Doth not even nature itself teach you, that, if a man have long hair, it is a shame unto him?

15 But if a woman have long hair, it is a glory to her: for her hair is given her for a covering.

I fully understand why Jesus Christ is always shown as a long haired effeminate, that comes from the god of this world Satan.

Plus it directly violated the Commandment of no idols

4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth:

here is a statement directly by Jesus Christ that is never in sermons.

Luke 19

27 But those mine enemies, which would not that I should reign over them, bring hither, and slay them before me.
 
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Matt 7:

22 Many will say to Me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name drive out demons and perform many miracles?’

23 Then I will tell them plainly, ‘I never knew you; depart from Me, you workers of lawlessness!’



Acts 3:19 - Repent therefore, and turn back, that your sins may be blotted out, (cant have sins if no law can you?)



Luke 10

25 On one occasion an expert in the law stood up to test Jesus. “Teacher,” he asked, “what must I do to inherit eternal life?”
27. He answered: " 'Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength and with all your mind' ; and, 'Love your neighbor as yourself.' "
28. "You have answered correctly," Jesus replied. "Do this and you will live."
 
Is not following God or having Faith/Belief in God the same as living for Satan after knowing God?

It's not an either/or proposition. Having faith means that one will follow God, irrespective of Satan. Salvation starts with the individual aligning their faith with Paul's gospel in Matt. 15: 1-4 for what Christ accomplished for our salvation who believe.

That Joshua...or whatever his name, who wrote that popular book "I Kissed Dating Goodbye," who claims he no longer believes in God, there is far more to his story than what is made public. Dare any true believer declare a diminishing of faith in God, the idea that Christ then follows suit by casting that individual's sins back upon them...there is no verse in Paul's epistles that establishes such a phenomenon.

So, I ask you again, why would anyone ever think that Christ would turn to unfaithfulness and even denying Himself to cast one's sins back upon them in unfaithfulness and self-denial? I quoted the very verse to you that spoke to that reality. That brings down the character of Christ right down to our level as sinful humans. Do you not see Christ and His faithfulness being greater than ours? What manner of God do you believe Him to be that you would view Him as no better than us?

I'm trying to answer your question with questions to shown that your question lacks credibility in relation to Christ's faithfulness to us irrespective of ours toward Him. You don't suppose you're always faithful in every way to Him,, do you? We can try, but we all stillmsin daily.

That He has a purpse for the body of Christ quite apart from all others throughout all other ages and people's, that speaks to something very special about His Grace He has extended to us. Why think so lowly of Him to think He would engage tit-for-tat antics in response to our unfaithfulness through our daily sin? He is fully human AND he is fully God. We are not, so to think He is like us who betray Him daily with our dailynsins...not. Jesus inspired Paul to write this and for good reason:

2 Timothy 2:13 — If we believe not, yet he abideth faithful: he cannot deny himself.

The context does not change this phrase away from saying what it clearly states.

So we all have a choice...either elevate our understanding of Christ and His Character up to the level where it belongs in our limited capacity to grasp that concept, or place Him on the lowly level of mere humanity with revenge as His knee jerk reaction toward anyone who claims to no longer have faith in Him. The latter reflects a christ who doesn't exist.

MM
 
It's not an either/or proposition. Having faith means that one will follow God, irrespective of Satan. Salvation starts with the individual aligning their faith with Paul's gospel in Matt. 15: 1-4 for what Christ accomplished for our salvation who believe.

That Joshua...or whatever his name, who wrote that popular book "I Kissed Dating Goodbye," who claims he no longer believes in God, there is far more to his story than what is made public. Dare any true believer declare a diminishing of faith in God, the idea that Christ then follows suit by casting that individual's sins back upon them...there is no verse in Paul's epistles that establishes such a phenomenon.

So, I ask you again, why would anyone ever think that Christ would turn to unfaithfulness and even denying Himself to cast one's sins back upon them in unfaithfulness and self-denial? I quoted the very verse to you that spoke to that reality. That brings down the character of Christ right down to our level as sinful humans. Do you not see Christ and His faithfulness being greater than ours? What manner of God do you believe Him to be that you would view Him as no better than us?

I'm trying to answer your question with questions to shown that your question lacks credibility in relation to Christ's faithfulness to us irrespective of ours toward Him. You don't suppose you're always faithful in every way to Him,, do you? We can try, but we all stillmsin daily.

That He has a purpse for the body of Christ quite apart from all others throughout all other ages and people's, that speaks to something very special about His Grace He has extended to us. Why think so lowly of Him to think He would engage tit-for-tat antics in response to our unfaithfulness through our daily sin? He is fully human AND he is fully God. We are not, so to think He is like us who betray Him daily with our dailynsins...not. Jesus inspired Paul to write this and for good reason:

2 Timothy 2:13 — If we believe not, yet he abideth faithful: he cannot deny himself.

The context does not change this phrase away from saying what it clearly states.

So we all have a choice...either elevate our understanding of Christ and His Character up to the level where it belongs in our limited capacity to grasp that concept, or place Him on the lowly level of mere humanity with revenge as His knee jerk reaction toward anyone who claims to no longer have faith in Him. The latter reflects a christ who doesn't exist.

MM

CORRECTION: I did not mean that verse brings down Christ's Character to that of sinful mankind. I meant to say questioning the faithfulness of Christ only brings down, to the level of fallen humanity, the Character of Christ.

MM
 
Magenta, have you ever read 1 Corinthians 11

14 Doth not even nature itself teach you, that, if a man have long hair, it is a shame unto him?

15 But if a woman have long hair, it is a glory to her: for her hair is given her for a covering.

I fully understand why Jesus Christ is always shown as a long haired effeminate, that comes from the god of this world Satan.

Plus it directly violated the Commandment of no idols

4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth:

here is a statement directly by Jesus Christ that is never in sermons.

Luke 19

27 But those mine enemies, which would not that I should reign over them, bring hither, and slay them before me.

Critical thinking is so absent these days. That hippy in what people see as being their Jesus of Nazereth, and why they like to think the REAL Jesus violated His own creation in nature by going around looking like a hippy shampoo model...

I can hear the weak-in-faith right now, objecting to this as if long hair on a man doesn't matter. We'll, it mattered to the Lord for Him to have inspired it to be written what a shame it is for men to have long hair, regardless of that not being a "tradition" among believers. Unfortunately, some see that lack of being a tradition as license to go around fitting the song that says, "Dude looks like a lady..."

MM
 
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There you go again, dodging straightforward questions with evasive claims for my allegedly not understanding what you stated before. Why not answer my questions? What is your game here?

MM

My points to you have been clear. Coupled with my responses to @HeIsHere that pertain to my discussion with you, my point to you is even more clear. I reject your false dichotomy and the fallacies you use to support it.

I've stated a 3rd option to your dichotomy here and here.

I will let scripture answer that since the Bible is the Lord's inspired word.

2 Timothy 2:13 — If we believe not, yet he abideth faithful: he cannot deny himself.

It seems that the Lord takes very seriously what He does when taking the sins upon Himself those who come to Him in faith. Removing from them the gift of salvation appears to be a matter of not only a denial of Himself, but also be a matter of unfaithfulness to His own Spirit since it would entail the Lord forfeiting His own Spirit.

So, if you would, how many people have you ever known who intentionally walked away from the Lord, and what was their basis for doing so? How do you know they had done so? How did you verify that? If you say it was you, how can you prove the Lord had ever removed your salvation from you? How do you know MM younever had it in the first place?

Lots of questions given that the claim for loss of salvation defies scripture, so therefore to be expected.

Please take us through at minimum 2Tim2:10-13 and explain how you derive your view of it.
 
Thanks Rogerg...I appreciate it; so far you are the first :)

Since I'm unfamiliar with your preferred Bible translation, I can't comment on details of it. However, I share your concerns about translations that emphasize personal responsibility in salvation rather than it being a gift from God bestowed upon those whom He had chosen for it. While I do not claim expertise in the languages used in the Bible, I have observed that many translations introduce ambiguity through their use of phrases such as "faith in Christ”, which can be interpreted as requiring human initiative for salvation in contrast to "faith of Christ" which more accurately credits the work of salvation to Christ Himself, with believers strictly being its recipients. This distinction is significant. The King James Version (KJV) generally maintains consistency with this doctrine by using " faith of Christ" over "faith in Christ." Those who insist a contribution from man is required for salvation remove Christ as the Savior and insert themselves into that role.
Additionally, there appears to be confusion surrounding phrases like "shalt be saved" or "will be saved” (depending upon translation), which phrase is in the future tense. These are often misunderstood to suggest that salvation follows sometime after believing, yet this interpretation introduces logical inconsistencies and is self-contradictory: if salvation were contingent solely on belief, it must of necessity occur immediately upon belief, rather than in the future as the tense demands; that is, the tenses must be the same not different. Such misunderstandings likely arise out of the varying contextual meanings of "saved" within Scripture, where it can refer either to one’s spiritual state or of being spared divine wrath at the final judgement. My view is that when "shall be saved” is encountered, it should first be interpreted as deliverance (saved) from God's wrath at final judgment. This means that salvation – in the context of a change to someone’s spiritual state - must occur before, not after, believing with believing coming from that.
While I am unable to comment directly on your Bible of choice without further review of it, I recognize and align with all of the scriptural doctrines you have thus far stated. It is my assessment that KJV addresses many of these concerns with greater fidelity than do the other translations.
I noticed the doctrine of election was not explicitly mentioned in your posts, though perhaps implied. From my perspective, that doctrine is foundational and essential to salvation with it being an act of God’s grace alone. If any aspect of salvation were dependent on human action, the integrity of grace would be fatally compromised.
I would also add that regardless of biblical version, the indwelling of the Holy Spirit is the single greatest prerequisite to arriving at correct biblical interpretation, without which, it cannot be achieved through the intellect or wisdom of the “natural man”.
So, to tie this back to the thread’s topic, since salvation is given solely and freely by God’s grace through Christ the Savior, by being through Him alone, it is not possible to be lost through or by the actions of man as it is not given by the actions of man.
In summary, I unequivocally agree your posts that receiving salvation is entirely from Christ and is apart from any human contribution, or to summarize: “Christ Alone + Nothing…”
These verses contrast the differences between how the word "saved" is applied within Scripture. Both tenses cannot be correct in terms of change to someone’s spiritual status or state, so they therefore must mean different things.+

Future tense: saved from God's wrath:
[Rom 5:9 KJV] 9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.
[Act 16:31 KJV] 31 And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.
[Rom 10:9 KJV] 9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

Present tense: change to one's spiritual status or state:
[Eph 2:8 KJV] 8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God:
(BTW, the “through faith” in above in Eph 2:8, is Christ’s faith not man’s faith, just as you mentioned with 1 Pet 1:4 &5, in a prior post)
[Eph 2:5 KJV] 5 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;)
 
My points to you have been clear. Coupled with my responses to @HeIsHere that pertain to my discussion with you, my point to you is even more clear. I reject your false dichotomy and the fallacies you use to support it.

I've stated a 3rd option to your dichotomy here and here.



Please take us through at minimum 2Tim2:10-13 and explain how you derive your view of it.

I don't see the posts with that user.

That context does not change nor modify the clear meaning of what verse 13 states. Given that, I'm not sure what additional clarification can be made given that nothing in that context shows any nullification of salvation by any means, especially on the part of believers.

If you believe otherwise, then please explain more clearly. My argument from silence on this serves only as a tool for spotlighting the added meaning anyone may try to shove into that context something that isn't there.

MM
 
I don't see the posts with that user.

That context does not change nor modify the clear meaning of what verse 13 states. Given that, I'm not sure what additional clarification can be made given that nothing in that context shows any nullification of salvation by any means, especially on the part of believers.

If you believe otherwise, then please explain more clearly. My argument from silence on this serves only as a tool for spotlighting the added meaning anyone may try to shove into that context something that isn't there.

MM

Odd. Here's the 3rd option I stated in answer to what I see as your false-dichotomy. Please note that I flagged you within this second linked post (#4,188) expecting you would see it:

I've also set aside the @Musicmaster false dichotomy and entered a 3rd view of responsive, cooperative, obedient faith which words provide indication that God initiates, leads, guides, disciplines, teaches, trains, etc., His children and expects and requires and provides ability for us to respond, cooperate, obey/believe and is the one who sovereignly determines what is work that He will reward and compensate and bless for. I also see these 4 words actively being involved in our initial coming to Christ and simply continuing from there in our growth as He directs.​
You posted no explanation for 2Tim2:13 other than suggesting it affirms your position on security. I've asked you to take us through the verse and explain it to us. The burden is on you to explain why it supports your view.

I'm anxious to interact with your teaching based upon your analysis of that verse in close context of 2Tim2:10-13 and most specifically of 2Tim2:11-13 being the more entire statement you're drawing one verse from. Some view the structure as hymnic or liturgical and you're just pulling one piece from that structure and using it to make a theological conclusion.
 
Odd. Here's the 3rd option I stated in answer to what I see as your false-dichotomy. Please note that I flagged you within this second linked post (#4,188) expecting you would see it:

I've also set aside the @Musicmaster false dichotomy and entered a 3rd view of responsive, cooperative, obedient faith which words provide indication that God initiates, leads, guides, disciplines, teaches, trains, etc., His children and expects and requires and provides ability for us to respond, cooperate, obey/believe and is the one who sovereignly determines what is work that He will reward and compensate and bless for. I also see these 4 words actively being involved in our initial coming to Christ and simply continuing from there in our growth as He directs.​
You posted no explanation for 2Tim2:13 other than suggesting it affirms your position on security. I've asked you to take us through the verse and explain it to us. The burden is on you to explain why it supports your view.

I'm anxious to interact with your teaching based upon your analysis of that verse in close context of 2Tim2:10-13 and most specifically of 2Tim2:11-13 being the more entire statement you're drawing one verse from. Some view the structure as hymnic or liturgical and you're just pulling one piece from that structure and using it to make a theological conclusion.

Please explain how losing, versus cannot lose, salvation is a false dichotomy. If your splitting the hair for there to be a third option, and that being that one can vacate their salvation, that option too is as empty for supporting scripture as the loss position. That's pretty straightforward and logical. Pointing to the silence also serves a good purpose for highlighting the additions to the text things that aren't there.

As to the 2 Timothy 2 section:

2 Timothy 2:10-13 — Therefore I endure all things for the elect's sakes, that they may also obtain the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with eternal glory. It is a faithful saying: For if we be dead with him, we shall also live with him: If we suffer, we shall also reign with him: if we deny him, he also will deny us: If we believe not, yet he abideth faithful: he cannot deny himself.

So, point by point:

Paul endures the stonings and other hardships of his ministry to bring his gospel to the Jews (without building on Peter's foundations among the Jews) and the Gentiles. If we are dead with Christ, we are also alive with him. Conditionally, if we suffer, we will also reign with him in the Heavenlies. Nothing cryptic or hidden so far, but to continue: If we deny Him, He will deny us.

THIS is where some of the rub comes into this context, where some inject salvation into Paul's meaning in how he phrased the concept of denial. Given that Paul did not address this as the tipping point for loss of salvation, some think themselves possessing license to just go ahead and eisegete that into the word choices inspired.

Thayer's Lexicon says this about the denying parts:

a. ἀρν. Ἰησοῦν is used of follower of Jesus who, for fear of death or persecution, deny that Jesus is their master, and desert his cause, [to disown]: Matthew 10:33; Luke 12:9; [John 13:38 L text T Tr WH]; 2 Timothy 2:12, (ἀρν. τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ, Revelation 3:8 means the same); and on the other hand, of Jesus, denying that one is his follower: Matthew 10:33; 2 Timothy 2:12.

When we take this at the exclusion of all else that defines the salvation we have by grace, it's THEN very easy to make this say whatever one wishes it to mean. Isolative interpretation methodology is just too easy when it seems to offer the freedom for subjective assignment of meaning, especially when it seems to strongly support that subjective desire. For example, when we exclude from our systematic understanding and study verses like these:

2 Corinthians 1:22 — Who hath also sealed us, and given the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts.

and this

Ephesians 1:13 — In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise,

and this

Ephesians 4:30 — And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.

...one is left with nothing to support the idea of 2 Tim. 2 being a defense for loss of salvation or any other combination that does nothing but to convolute the topic.

Many, many more sections of scripture could be pointed out to an exhaustive extent, but if this doesn't suffice, then I'm not sure what could be shown to revitalize one's appreciation for understanding what all of scripture, under the Gospel of Grace and outside this gospel, that could serve as solid grounding for an understanding of the error behind injecting salvation loss into the meaning of Pauls words.

Galatians 1:11-12 — But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man. For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.

Paul persecuted them believing Jews on the basis of the Kingdom Gospel he had heard from men, but the Gospel of Grace that he received only from Christ, it clearly stands apart from the Kingdom Gospel preached by the twelve. Under one they had to endure unto the end, under the other they did not have to endure in order to be saved, but the endurance having to do only with reward. We are saved to the uttermost right now, not at some future point as was stated to those under the Kingdom Gospel.

Those differences, then, set us apart from those who were not under the same gospel and same conditions for salvation, for none of the twelve ever told Israel they were saved by grace through faith and that jot of themselves, lest any man should boast...

Lastly, when Paul was inspired to insert the condition of unbelief among true believers into that text, he makes clear to us the faithfulness of Christ and His lack in ever denying Himself even within believer's traipse into unbelief, the implications, coupled with all else that's stated by way of being sealed by Holy Spirit, it's just undeniable the extent of our salvation being based upon His faithfulness and His Holy Spirit who has infinite strength.

How could the Lord ever fail to hold the believer who falls into unfaithfulness for whatever reason? It all serves His purposes that some foolishly choose to question. It's not at all hard to comprehend the extent of the Lord's faithfulness in the face of our habitual unfaithfulness in daily sins. Who has ever stopped sinning in this life, and yet some choose to draw subjective lines in the sands of their pathetic humanity to think themselves qualified to define a line that exists nowhere in relation to the extent of our salvation.

I hope that helps.

MM
 
Many, many more sections of scripture could be pointed out to an exhaustive extent
Yes Totally agree:

Because Of God's Own All-Sufficient BLOOD Shed FOR
mankind, there is Only ONE [ Spiritual ] Baptism In Which God Has
All The Following "Profitable" Scriptures For The Body Of Christ!:

God's OPERATION On All New-born babes In Christ!
+ Updates: (of # 11) + (of #14)
+
God's Eternal Life Assurance

+
God's Eternal Life Insurance

Precious friend(s), Please Be Very Richly Encouraged And Edified
In Christ, and In His Precious Word Of Truth!:

Amen.

MiningTreasures.png

How precious new-born babes In Christ Could Richly benefit from such digging, eh?
 
CORRECTION: I did not mean that verse brings down Christ's Character to that of sinful mankind. I meant to say questioning the faithfulness of Christ only brings down, to the level of fallen humanity, the Character of Christ.

MM
I'm not questioning Christ and His faithfulness but questioning there has to be a point if someone just rejects God continuously God says ok have it your way.
 
^
God gave Pharaoh the opportunity to make the right decision but the more Pharaoh hardened his heart God finally made it permanent.
 
^
Romans 1 tells us God gives those who reject Him many chances but eventually God hands them over to a reprobate mind.

There has to be a limit since there's a limit God uses in other examples.
 
Can a once truly saved believer backslide too much and lose the gift of salvation? If so do they need to repent and ask for forgiveness through Christ again? Thoughts are welcome and scripture too!

Do people continue to sin once they receive the gift of salvation?
 
I'm not questioning Christ and His faithfulness but questioning there has to be a point if someone just rejects God continuously God says ok have it your way.

Based on what scripture, may I ask?

It makes sense that we, in our fallen, human state would think as you have stated, but God is not subject to our proclivities, lack of faithfulness, etc. We give up on each other, the Lord does not.

Again, who have you ever known to do as you have stated?

MM
 
It makes sense that we, in our fallen, human state would think as you have stated, but God is not subject to our proclivities, lack of faithfulness, etc. We give up on each other, the Lord does not.

I am the true vine, and my Father is the husbandman. Every branch in me that beareth not fruit he taketh away: and every branch that beareth fruit, he purgeth it, that it may bring forth more fruit. John 15:1-2
If a man abide not in me, he is cast forth as a branch, and is withered; and men gather them, and cast them into the fire, and they are burned. John 15:6
Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou standest by faith. Be not highminded, but fear: For if God spared not the natural branches, take heed lest he also spare not thee. Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off. Romans 11:20-22
 
Based on what scripture, may I ask?

It makes sense that we, in our fallen, human state would think as you have stated, but God is not subject to our proclivities, lack of faithfulness, etc. We give up on each other, the Lord does not.

Again, who have you ever known to do as you have stated?

MM
Typically, those who become close enough to know God don't do as I have mentioned but in everything there has to be at least one example.
 
When the Lord Jesus Christ said "whoever puts His hand to the plow and removes it is not fit for the Kingdom of God", the inference is to put ones hand back upon the plow.
There are some in Christ's Kingdom who have wandered so far from the row, that they couldn't find the plow with both hands, a map, a compass and a flashlight. Which is why the Lord Jesus Christ also said "And I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; neither shall anyone snatch them out of My hand. My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of My Father’s hand."

The wandering sheep is still a sheep.