At what point in our salvation is the blood of Christ applied?

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Me_Clay said:
Did you received his blood? I dont think so, otherwise you would have know.
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Is there a scripture that says the blood of Jesus gets "applied" to us at some point during salvation. I don't think you know of any, otherwise you would have cited it.
Heb 10:14
For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are being sanctified (by default, present continuous tense).
Heb 10:15
Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before,
Heb 10:16
This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;
Heb 10:17
And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.
Heb 10:18
Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.
Heb 10:19
Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus,
Heb 10:20
By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;
Heb 10:21
And having an high priest over the house of God;
Heb 10:22
Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.

I asked if there is a scripture that says the blood gets applied to a sinner who is being saved, because we need to be aware of assumptions inherent in our our questions.

Hebrews 10 implies that the forgiven sinner 's heart has been (metaphorically?) sprinkled with the blood of Jesus and the result is that s/he gains a clean conscience in exchange for their previous guilty/evil conscience. We know that believing Jesus died to set us free from our guilty/evil conscience is what justifies us. We are justified by grace through faith.
Eph 2:8
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:

So, the effect of Jesus' blood being shed applies to the sinner when s/he puts faith in Jesus as the Saviour authenticated by His death on account of our sins and His resurrection testifying that He had not committed sins of His own. It is moot whether the blood is literally applied, just as the ordained priests were literally sprinkled with literal blood, or the blood is spoken of as metaphorically being sprinkled on sinners because the shed blood of Jesus has a similar effect on the sinner, allowing a bold approach to God, as the animal blood sprinkled on Levites also allowed a closer access to God than was available to the people at large.


.
 
Blue155 said:
... Holy Spirit baptism was a promise to the chosen apostles that they were to receive at Pentecost. That’s why Jesus told them to tarry in the city (Lk. 24:49), not to depart from it (Acts 1:1-8). They were to wait for the promise of the Father (Acts 1:4). That was to the chosen apostles of Christ for a special purpose!!! And it was to empower them with miracles and bring remembrance to help confirm the word so the gospel could be spread (Heb. 2:1-4; Mk. 16:20; John 16:13, 14:26, Acts 2:1-4)!! Other people who received miracles also was able to confirm the word (Mk. 16:20; Heb. 2:1-4). When the church was established, they did not have the complete written New Testament to point to a New Testament scripture when they were out preaching and teaching, so they needed to show people what they were saying was true!! That is one of the purposes for the baptism of the Holy Spirit and the miraculous abilities they received, as well as the miraculous gifts that others had received that the Spirit gave them when an apostle laid hands on them (Acts 8, 19; Rom. 1:4; 1 Cor. 12:11)!!! ...
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A book containing what the apostles and prophets said, is no more believable than the apostles and prophets testifying orally to what the book will eventually record. If Jesus needed charismata to prove He had power to forgive sins, and His disciples needed charismata to demonstrate that God forgives sins, why would we also not need charismata to demonstrate that God forgives sins?

Would a missionary going to some jungle tribe with his Bible, which may have lost a few pages in transit, need charismata to validate is claims about Jesus, since that tribe does not have the complete Bible, just as the first century Christians did not have the complete Bible? If not, why not?
 
PaulThomson said:
A book containing what the apostles and prophets said, is no more believable than the apostles and prophets testifying orally to what the book will eventually record. If Jesus needed charismata to prove He had power to forgive sins, and His disciples needed charismata to demonstrate that God forgives sins, why would we also not need charismata to demonstrate that God forgives sins?

Would a missionary going to some jungle tribe with his Bible, which may have lost a few pages in transit, need charismata to validate is claims about Jesus, since that tribe does not have the complete Bible, just as the first century Christians did not have the complete Bible? If not, why not?
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What would one need to use to teach someone the gospel?
 
PaulThomson said:
Is there a scripture that says the blood of Jesus gets "applied" to us at some point during salvation. I don't think you know of any, otherwise you would have cited it.
Heb 10:14
For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are being sanctified (by default, present continuous tense).
Heb 10:15
Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before,
Heb 10:16
This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;
Heb 10:17
And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.
Heb 10:18
Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.
Heb 10:19
Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus,
Heb 10:20
By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;
Heb 10:21
And having an high priest over the house of God;
Heb 10:22
Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.

I asked if there is a scripture that says the blood gets applied to a sinner who is being saved, because we need to be aware of assumptions inherent in our our questions.

Hebrews 10 implies that the forgiven sinner 's heart has been (metaphorically?) sprinkled with the blood of Jesus and the result is that s/he gains a clean conscience in exchange for their previous guilty/evil conscience. We know that believing Jesus died to set us free from our guilty/evil conscience is what justifies us. We are justified by grace through faith.
Eph 2:8
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:

So, the effect of Jesus' blood being shed applies to the sinner when s/he puts faith in Jesus as the Saviour authenticated by His death on account of our sins and His resurrection testifying that He had not committed sins of His own. It is moot whether the blood is literally applied, just as the ordained priests were literally sprinkled with literal blood, or the blood is spoken of as metaphorically being sprinkled on sinners because the shed blood of Jesus has a similar effect on the sinner, allowing a bold approach to God, as the animal blood sprinkled on Levites also allowed a closer access to God than was available to the people at large.


.
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I dont really understand what're saying so 🤷 I will leave you alone.
 
@PaulThomson, your comment borders on blasphemy. By implying that the written word of God isn’t enough to know God or His forgiveness, your comment essentially treats God’s revealed word delivered by revelation as inadequate, which is very close to undermining God’s wisdom and plan. To cast doubt on the word of God is akin to what atheists and skeptics do. You should be ashamed of yourself. And for that reason, I’m putting you on ignore.
 
Blue155 said:
@PaulThomson, your comment borders on blasphemy. By implying that the written word of God isn’t enough to know God or His forgiveness, your comment essentially treats God’s revealed word delivered by revelation as inadequate, which is very close to undermining God’s wisdom and plan. To cast doubt on the word of God is akin to what atheists and skeptics do. You should be ashamed of yourself. And for that reason, I’m putting you on ignore.
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Is that what he's saying?
 
Blue155 said:
@PaulThomson, your comment borders on blasphemy. By implying that the written word of God isn’t enough to know God or His forgiveness, your comment essentially treats God’s revealed word delivered by revelation as inadequate, which is very close to undermining God’s wisdom and plan. To cast doubt on the word of God is akin to what atheists and skeptics do. You should be ashamed of yourself. And for that reason, I’m putting you on ignore.
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Matthew11-27.png

All things have been entrusted to Me by My Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal Him. Matthew 11:27
 
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Magenta said:
Matthew11-27.png

All things have been entrusted to Me by My Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal Him. Matthew 11:27
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Magenta, have mercy on us! Stop posting those graphics images 😤
 
Genez said:
Now you can argue that at Pentecost those who spoke in tongues were the disciples of Jesus.

But? These folks? Were not!

While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message. ​
The circumcised believers who had come with Peter were astonished that the gift of the Holy ​
Spirit had been poured out even on Gentiles. For they heard them speaking in tongues and ​
praising God." Acts 10:44-46​


We'll get to the bottom of this if we have patience...
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You are not reading why that happened. Again, @Beckworth and myself have told you why. That tells me you aren’t reading or listening to what we are saying.
 
Magenta said:
Matthew11-27.png

All things have been entrusted to Me by My Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal Him. Matthew 11:27
Click to expand...
Interesting how you quoted the word of God to try and disprove my point. Ironically, you quoting it proves the very point I’m making! Thanks!!
 
Me_Clay said:
Is that what he's saying?
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How would it not be? Here is what he said concerning the Bible. It’s “no more believable than the apostles and prophets testifying orally to what the book will eventually record”

Why isn’t it believable? If the OT was believable for Timothy (2 Tim. 3:14-15) and the Eunuch when Philip “beginning at this Scripture, preached Jesus to him” (Acts 8:30-35), then why would the New Testament that Jesus shed His blood for not be (Mt. 26:28)? To ask is to answer.
 
Blue155 said:
How would it not be? Here is what he said concerning the Bible. It’s “no more believable than the apostles and prophets testifying orally to what the book will eventually record”

Why isn’t it believable? If the OT was believable for Timothy (2 Tim. 3:14-15) and the Eunuch when Philip “beginning at this Scripture, preached Jesus to him” (Acts 8:30-35), then why would the New Testament that Jesus shed His blood for not be (Mt. 26:28)? To ask is to answer.
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I didn't want
Blue155 said:
How would it not be? Here is what he said concerning the Bible. It’s “no more believable than the apostles and prophets testifying orally to what the book will eventually record”

Why isn’t it believable? If the OT was believable for Timothy (2 Tim. 3:14-15) and the Eunuch when Philip “beginning at this Scripture, preached Jesus to him” (Acts 8:30-35), then why would the New Testament that Jesus shed His blood for not be (Mt. 26:28)? To ask is to answer.
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Do you find him strange?
 
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