read the verse again Cameron143If the power was inherent, it would necessarily be experienced by all. The truth is that when God's word goes forth, it always accomplishes what it is sent forth to accomplish. This being the case, when someone is saved as a result of sending forth the word, this was God's purpose. When it doesn't, God's purpose couldn't have been salvation.
So in the first case, the power of God was indeed exercised because the outcome is belief.
Romans 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
the "outcome" is salvation to those who believe.
the power of God unto salvation to everyone who believes ... the verse does not state the gospel is the power of God to believe as implied by you.
rolleyes ... projection much? ... that's your claim ... how many times have we heardCameron143 said:In the second case, are you suggesting God exercised His power so the individual wouldn't believe?
"not everybody hears" ...
also "hearing must include comprehension"s cuz "that is the way the natural man, the unregenerated person, hears"
also "he can neither receive nor comprehend"
also "it remains impossible"
all the pages and pages of y'all claiming what you unsuccessfully tried to imply studier believes.
oh I'm sure Magenta will oblige your request ... be patient.Cameron143 said:Back to the drawing board.
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