Why God the Father considered this fruit as forbidden?
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that one is easy,
to God, dead = separated from Him. He is The Life.
e.g. as it's written, we were dead in our trespasses - and how Christ speaking about Lazarus kept referring to him as asleep, until their human inability to comprehend what He was saying reached the point that He told them flatly, Lazarus had died.
the more complex question is what is meant in Genesis 3 - - the phrase 'surely die' is an interpretave approximation. the literal translation is 'dying, you shall die'
This scenario never change as God the Father said in Ecclesiastes 1:9.
And Our Lord Jesus said in Matthew 24:35.
The character of Scribes & Pharisees are still here.
The generation of Christianity today served as the Jews.
The Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil is also still in this generation.
Pharisees and scribes were unsaved Jews who did not understand Jesus' identity and mission. The people who resist your errors here are redeemed Christians telling you truth who do understand Jesus' identity and mission.
Remember we are talking about the characters of Scribes & Pharisees who have the same characters as the leaders today. Which the reason why Our Lord Jesus call them in John 8:44 Your Father the Devil.
Scribes & Pharisees Characters;
1. They don't know and can't identify God the Father (John 8:54-55)
2. Without knowing God the Father would not believe that he is Speaking in Parables as Scribes & Pharisees belief (John 2:19-20)
Preachers today claiming they know Jesus Christ and so they preached they are redeemed Christian. But the Truth they are belong to the rebuke of Our Lord Jesus.
JOHN 8:19
19 Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also.
If you are a true redeemed Christian, you must know or identify who God the Father is. This is the basis given by Our Lord Jesus in knowing Jesus.
You may ignore this truth or beg to Our Lord Jesus for his Mercy.
But Jesus said:
“Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?” (Joh 14:9 NKJV)
Paul says in Colossians that Jesus is the image of the invisible God. So already knowing the Father isn't the basis for knowing Jesus. Rather, we know the Father through knowing Jesus Christ.
How many of you have been Baptized? Did you not die with Christ and raiswed again as a new creature? Paul taught that he reckons himself dead in Christ. So is that true or not? I mean, you are here reading on a forum so is that untrue?
Or do you have a glimmer of what really happened in the Garden of Eden? Adam and Eve died spiritually.
That is not what Scripture says. You are engaging in eisegesis.
Don’t quote your own posts unless you are making a correction. Otherwise it comes across as though you are having a discussion with yourself instead of with others.
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FAQ: Did the Word's virgin conception isolate his incarnation from the so
called fallen nature?
REPLY: No.
FAQ: Why not?
REPLY: The fallen nature isn't inherited. I know that's true because Eve was
fully constructed with material taken from Adam's body prior to his tasting
the forbidden fruit so it was impossible for him to pass it on to her by means
of heredity; yet her original perception of decency was replaced with an
altered version the same time as his.
The thing is: according to Rom 5:12-21 Adam is the cause of his posterity's
fallen nature, but he isn't said to be the source of it.
FAQ: Well if Adam isn't the source of the fallen nature, then who is?
REPLY: Mr. Serpent is the logical source, a.k.a. the Devil and Satan (Rev
12:9, Rev 20:2) He has the power of death (Heb 2:14) and the ability to
tamper with the human body and the human mind in ways not easily
detected, e.g. Luke 13:16, Mark 5:1-5, and Eph 2:1-2.
The Serpent was apparently all set and ready to wield his power the moment
that Adam crossed the line and ate that fruit. It amazes me how quickly it
takes effect. Not long after Adam tasted the fruit, he and his wife both
immediately set to work cobbling together some rudimentary aprons to
cover up their pelvic areas.
FAQ: When does the Serpent go to work on people . . . in the womb or out
of the womb?
REPLY: Adam and his wife demonstrate the Serpent's ability to work on
adults, but I'm guessing he gets to most everyone else in the womb. (Ps
51:5 & Ps 58:3)
FAQ: The Bible says the Word's incarnation was made of a woman (Gal 4:4)
who in turn was made of Adam (Gen 2:22) and came in the likeness of sinful
flesh (Rom 8:3) So then why didn't the Word's incarnation have the fallen
nature like everyone else?
REPLY: It was likely a simple matter for the Holy Spirit to keep the Serpent's
paws off baby Jesus to ensure he would come into the world a sinless man.
_
FAQ: Did the Word's virgin conception isolate his incarnation from the so
called fallen nature?
REPLY: No.
FAQ: Why not?
REPLY: The fallen nature isn't inherited. I know that's true because Eve was
fully constructed with material taken from Adam's body prior to his tasting
the forbidden fruit so it was impossible for him to pass it on to her by means
of heredity; yet her original perception of decency was replaced with an
altered version the same time as his.
The thing is: according to Rom 5:12-21 Adam is the cause of his posterity's
fallen nature, but he isn't said to be the source of it.
FAQ: Well if Adam isn't the source of the fallen nature, then who is?
REPLY: Mr. Serpent is the logical source, a.k.a. the Devil and Satan (Rev
12:9, Rev 20:2) He has the power of death (Heb 2:14) and the ability to
tamper with the human body and the human mind in ways not easily
detected, e.g. Luke 13:16, Mark 5:1-5, and Eph 2:1-2.
The Serpent was apparently all set and ready to wield his power the moment
that Adam crossed the line and ate that fruit. It amazes me how quickly it
takes effect. Not long after Adam tasted the fruit, he and his wife both
immediately set to work cobbling together some rudimentary aprons to
cover up their pelvic areas.
FAQ: When does the Serpent go to work on people . . . in the womb or out
of the womb?
REPLY: Adam and his wife demonstrate the Serpent's ability to work on
adults, but I'm guessing he gets to most everyone else in the womb. (Ps
51:5 & Ps 58:3)
FAQ: The Bible says the Word's incarnation was made of a woman (Gal 4:4)
who in turn was made of Adam (Gen 2:22) and came in the likeness of sinful
flesh (Rom 8:3) So then why didn't the Word's incarnation have the fallen
nature like everyone else?
REPLY: It was likely a simple matter for the Holy Spirit to keep the Serpent's
paws off baby Jesus to ensure he would come into the world a sinless man.
_
Sin is passed through the blood from the man not the woman. The blood supply to the fetus comes through the man. No need for insulation. That is a catholic thing. Just watched Les Feldick talk on this last night. He explained it better than I can but I imagine a better biological explanation on how blood gets to the fetus can be found on the web.
.
● Lev 17:11 . . For the soul of the flesh is in the blood
That statement is not only true in the medical world, but also applicable in
matters relative to heredity.
The Bible says that the Word's incarnation is on track to become Israel's
ultimate monarch. (Micah 5:2, Matt 2:4-6, & Luke 1:30-33)
God promised David that his natural descendants would take his throne; and
that promise was on oath. (Ps 132:11)
The new testament verifies that God was thinking of the Word's incarnation
when that Psalm was penned. (Acts 2:29-30)
The thing is: any man considered for David's throne has to be proven one of
his natural descendants. So it is essential that the Word's incarnation have
David's blood in his flesh rather than somebody else's blood.
FAQ: How is it possible for the Word's incarnation to be David's natural descendant
when Mary slept with no man to conceive baby Jesus?
REPLY: Women produce descendants just as readily as men. So if Jesus' mom was
blood kin to David, then any child conceived in Mary's womb would be blood kin to
David too. (cf. Luke 1:31, Luke 1:42, & Gal 4:4)
_
● Lev 17:11 . . For the soul of the flesh is in the blood
That statement is not only true in the medical world, but also applicable in
matters relative to heredity.
The Bible says that the Word's incarnation is on track to become Israel's
ultimate monarch. (Micah 5:2, Matt 2:4-6, & Luke 1:30-33)
God promised David that his natural descendants would take his throne; and
that promise was on oath. (Ps 132:11)
The new testament verifies that God was thinking of the Word's incarnation
when that Psalm was penned. (Acts 2:29-30)
The thing is: any man considered for David's throne has to be proven one of
his natural descendants. So it is essential that the Word's incarnation have
David's blood in his flesh rather than somebody else's blood.
FAQ: How is it possible for the Word's incarnation to be David's natural descendant
when Mary slept with no man to conceive baby Jesus?
REPLY: Women produce descendants just as readily as men. So if Jesus' mom was
blood kin to David, then any child conceived in Mary's womb would be blood kin to
David too. (cf. Luke 1:31, Luke 1:42, & Gal 4:4)
_
FAQ #42 How was Lord Jesus Christ born without sin? – Les Feldick Bible Study
https://www.lesfeldickbiblestudy.com/faq-42-how-was-lord-jesus-christ-born-without-sin/
https://www.lesfeldickbiblestudy.com/faq-42-how-was-lord-jesus-christ-born-without-sin/
Matthew 11 verse 27 ~ All things have been entrusted to Me by My Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal Him.
John 17 verses 2-3 ~ You granted Him authority over all people, so that He may give eternal life to all those You have given Him. Now this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, Whom You have sent.
Being one of the Apostles, the recognition of Phillip to Jesus is a revelation from God the father same as Apostle Peter(Matthew 16:15-17). Therefore Phillip knows who God the Father is.
Phillip rebuked by Our Lord Jesus. First Phillip knows who God the Father is and now he ask Jesus to show his Father.
Our Lord Jesus is telling the Truth.
This is what he said:
JOHN 8:19
19 Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also.
The proof for John 8:19 is one of the thieves at the right hand of Our Lord Jesus.
When he recognize Jesus it follows the recognition to God the Father.
That is why he was talking to Jesus being God the Father.
JOHN 22:23
42 And he said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom.
And Jesus in his primary role as God the Father. He answered in the role of God the Father. Jesus claimed that the paradise is belong to Jesus.
JOHN 23:43
43 And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise.
You may ask God for his Mercy or you can turn your back as what the disciples did in John 6:66.
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I seriously doubt that the Word's incarnation came into the world as the Father,
rather, he came to reveal the Father.
● John 1:18 . . No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in
the bosom of the Father, he has declared Him.
NOTE: A Greek word for "Son" isn't in the manuscripts. Somebody penciled it into
the translation probably because they thought the verse makes better sense that
way. Some versions insert the word "God" in that location, but that's an arbitrary
edit too.
_
I seriously doubt that the Word's incarnation came into the world as the Father,
rather, he came to reveal the Father.
● John 1:18 . . No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in
the bosom of the Father, he has declared Him.
NOTE: A Greek word for "Son" isn't in the manuscripts. Somebody penciled it into
the translation probably because they thought the verse makes better sense that
way. Some versions insert the word "God" in that location, but that's an arbitrary
edit too.
_