You say that you totally agree, but then you "add" the work of water baptism to salvation through faith, not works, anyway, and so do Roman Catholics and Mormons.
Hard to comment since I have never met anyone who claimed to be "works-salvationists". I have known many Roman Catholics and Mormons but none of them claimed to be working to merit their salvation. It seems you are simply painting them as such because they do not hold to your particular faith (rightly understood) alone regeneration theology.
Don't let them fool you. Both groups clearly teach salvation by faith AND WORKS.
I once told a Roman Catholic that we are saved by grace, through faith, not works, and he responded by saying, "I know that." But after we discussed it, a little further, I realized what that Roman Catholic actually taught was that we are saved by grace through faith "infused with works" (good works and just not works on the law) and then those good works become meritorious towards receiving salvation. Here is what that Roman Catholic said to me:
We are saved by faith as long as you properly define "faith." Faith is not simply "believing". Faith includes: (here comes the works!) Being water baptized, eating His body and drinking His blood/partaking the Lord's Supper during Mass, works of mercy and charity, obeying His commandments, etc..
Roman Catholics try to "shoe horn" works "into" salvation through faith, not works and still try to call it salvation through"faith," even though it's salvation through AND works.
https://www.justforcatholics.org/a14.htm
Mormons teach that salvation is a combination of Gods grace through Jesus Christ's atonement in an individual's faith repentance, obedience to the gospel's laws. And ordinances and righteous actions or works. While God's grace is considered essential and primary, they believe that a person's own diligent effort to live a righteous life is also necessary to qualify for exaltation or the highest degree of salvation. Mormons even believe in three different levels of glory in heaven, celestial terrestrial and telestial. Joseph Smith "added" the word "telestial" in his so called "inspired" version of the Bible in Corinthians 15:40 in order to reach his conclusion on that false doctrine.
I do not believe in "works salvation" but if you are implying that obedience to repentance and water baptism as "works" for the receiving of the Holy Spirit and the remission of sins then yes I am guilty.
Repentance (change of mind) is not a work, but water baptism is a work that you turned into a prerequisite for salvation. You believe we are saved by faith "plus water baptism" (works). Even if you only believe that we are saved by works "in part" you are still a works-salvationist.
The only "shoehorning" is you by adding and modifying your verses by supplementing the definitive "alone" into the passages.
Unlike you, along with Roman Catholics and Mormons, I don't try to "shoehorn" works "into" salvation through faith, not works I understand that we are saved by grace through faith, not works.
Again, I have never met anyone who calls themselves "work-salvationist" but I am sure you have labeled many people as such.
Certain works-salvationists define works salvation as salvation by perfectly obeying the law of Moses,
but that is not the only form of works salvation. It only takes one work "added" to salvation through faith (like water baptism) to still make you a works-salvationist. It's either salvation by grace through faith in Jesus Christ alone or else it's salvation by faith + works. You can't have it both ways.
Since you have added "alone" into every one of your verses then you are negating any and all commands.
Not at all. What is the one condition that alone results in receiving eternal life in every one of those verses that I quoted? You don't need to spell out the word "alone" next to belief/faith in all of those verses in order to figure this out.
It is not flawed logic, it is you not wanting to see the logical parallel to protect your theology.
I'm protecting gospel truth.
The Hebrews received the promise for their obedience. Peter received the promise for his obedience.
What obedience was that and how much obedience "in addition to faith" did it take?
Peter replied, “Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39 The promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off—for all whom the Lord our God will call.”
In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
Regardless of what the promise is, it is granted at the point of obedience.
Your argument from authority falls flat and reeks of desperation. There is nothing in the verbiage of this passage to suggest such a translation hence the lack of it in the Bible.
No desperation on my part. Just flawed Hermeneutics on your part. The only logical conclusion
when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18).
*Perfect Harmony*
Only a person with a disposition to believe faith alone regeneration theology would accept such a convoluted understanding.
Biblical Hermeneutics are on my side. Work-salvationalists typically hang their hat on a few pet verses, while ignoring the multitude of verses that destroy their case. Such folks are more interested in accommodating their biased church doctrine than they are in seriously considering the truth.
I doubt you would accept this reasoning in other passages in the Bible, lets try.
I accept that salvation is by grace through faith and is not by works (Ephesians 2:8,9) and to believe anything else is to miss salvation.
This verse has the same sentence structure as
Acts 2:38.
Luke 5:4
When he finished speaking to the crowds, he said to Simon, “Row out farther, into the deep water, and drop your nets for a catch.”
So why did Peter row out to the deep water and drop his nets?
a. "Because of" the fish he already had?
or
b. "In order to" catch the fish he did not have?
If you are intellectually honest you will answer b.
Be honest, mailmandan.[/QUOTE] Repentance is for "in order to obtain" the remission of sins, just as it is in Acts 3:19, but not baptism, so save me your sales pitch.
As Greek scholar AT Robertson stated: Change of number from plural to singular and of person from second to third. This change marks a break in the thought here that the English translation does not preserve. The first thing to do is make a radical and complete change of heart and life. Then let each one be baptized after this change has taken place, and the act of baptism be performed “in the name of Jesus Christ” (εν τωι ονοματι Ιησου Χριστου — en tōi onomati Iēsou Christou).
Greek scholar A. T. Robertson authored Word Pictures in the New Testament. In his comments on Acts 2:38 he said, - “One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not. "My view is decidedly against the idea that Peter, Paul, or any one in the New Testament taught baptism as essential to the remission of sins or the means of securing such remission.
So I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of the forgiveness of sins which they had already received.” The illustrations of both usages are numerous in the N.T. and the Koin, generally (Robertson, Grammar, page 592).
Acts 2 - Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament - Bible Commentaries - StudyLight.org
Now in Matthew 3:11, we read - I baptize you with water "for" repentance.. Was this baptism for "in order to obtain" repentance? OR was this baptism for "in regard to/on the basis of" remission of sins received upon repentance? Getting water baptized in order to obtain repentance makes no sense at all. Repentance "precedes" water baptism.[/QUOTE]