I rechecked before speaking but there's no such Verse that makes the claim you have made.Don't think that had anything to do with it! He was hated before he was born.![]()
Is this personal belief because it's definitely not Biblically true?
I rechecked before speaking but there's no such Verse that makes the claim you have made.Don't think that had anything to do with it! He was hated before he was born.![]()
God is not a respector of people.
If He died for one person who will believe He died for the one who reject Him.
So...you seem to be saying that God is indebted to the sinner? He owes them a "way out" of THEIR sin? On what judicial basis does He owe them? Or what have sinners given to God that he needs to repay them (Rom 11:35)!? Is God the cause of their sin? Or....
Job 41:11
11 Who has a claim against me that I must pay?
Everything under heaven belongs to me.
NIV
Or....
Matt 20:15
15 Don't I have the right to do what I want with my own money? Or are you envious because I am generous?'
NIV
"So you seem to say God is indebted to the sinner" if thats how you interpret anything I've said on here.. its no wonder others dont trust your interpretations of the Bible.
What fixes the depravity issue is changing the heart. Actually it is replaced. That does NOT happen at birth.
Then that is not the free will of the natural man you are espousing, since only those made alive in Christ have the
freedom to choose. That is quite different. But we are slaves either way, first to sin, and then to righteousness.
Men in the OT were called righteous even as sinners. They were not being called to believe the gospel.
They had direct experience with God which some here call God being unfair.
What fixes the depravity issue is changing the heart. Actually it is replaced. That does NOT happen at birth.
Then that is not the free will of the natural man you are espousing, since only those made alive in Christ have the
freedom to choose.
That is quite different. But we are slaves either way, first to sin, and then to righteousness.
Men in the OT were called righteous even as sinners. They were not being called to believe the gospel.
They had direct experience with God which some here call God being unfair.
If righteousness, the will to do God's will, is found before the indwelling of the Spirit, why do we need Christ's imputed righteousness? Wouldn't that mean we are perfectly capable of righteousness on our own?I didn't say it did. I said the opposite. To be depraved is morally corrupt. Not to be absent of will. To be totally depraved theologically is to be so morally corrupt to reject God. To reject God is still a choice. Except God's Spirit draws people towards a new heart in Christ. You can be morally corrupt and still be persuaded by the Spirit to come to believe in Christ. That is the gospel. Come to, believe, repent, and accept what Christ has done and then the indwelling, not befo
re.
No NT account has the change of heart coming before the indwelling. It comes after, meaning they at first had to believe and accept Christ.
Forced conversion or unrelenting grace is unbiblical.
Maybe according to anti-free will doctrines but I do not see as stated above a sinner not having the ability to choose Christ.
True but not slaves of will or mind.
My point is not the difference in OT and NT ways to salvation but to provide proof that totally depravity is false in the sense that righteousness (will to do God's will) was still found before the indwelling.
(Sure there are OT accounts that speak of the Spirit coming upon someone to empower them and then leave. But not in many cases)
Genesis 6:8-9 declares, "Noah, however, found favor in the eyes of the LORD. This is the account of Noah. Noah was a righteous man, blameless in his generation; Noah walked with God."
God found favor/grace towards Noah due to His life being set apart from the depravity of the world.
Found favor due to being righteous not given favor due to being made righteous which is proof that Noah had a choice. To follow the God of his fathers or the ways of the world corrupted by the fallen angels.
(Of course, it was still Noah's faith in God that saved Him both physically and spiritually.)
Salvation throughout all the history of mankind has been through faith. Noah saved by grace through faith ... Abraham saved by grace through faith ... Moses saved by grace through faith ...My point is not the difference in OT and NT ways to salvationMen in the OT were called righteous even as sinners. They were not being called to believe the gospel.
They had direct experience with God which some here call God being unfair
But did God purpose in eternity to save all men w/o exception? God's decretive will and his desirous will are two different things.
Also, have you ever asked yourself: Why would an omniscient God who knows all things offer his gift of grace to people He knew in eternity would never accept it? Hasn't God always known the end from the very beginning?
Another question: Why would God offer the gift of grace to people He never knew in eternity?
But did God purpose in eternity to save all men w/o exception? God's decretive will and his desirous will are two different things.
Also, have you ever asked yourself: Why would an omniscient God who knows all things offer his gift of grace to people He knew in eternity would never accept it? Hasn't God always known the end from the very beginning?
Another question: Why would God offer the gift of grace to people He never knew in eternity?
Scripture tells us righteousness is imputed by God to those who believe:If righteousness, the will to do God's will, is found before the indwelling of the Spirit, why do we need Christ's imputed righteousness? Wouldn't that mean we are perfectly capable of righteousness on our own?
If righteousness, the will to do God's will, is found before the indwelling of the Spirit, why do we need Christ's imputed righteousness? Wouldn't that mean we are perfectly capable of righteousness on our own?
What fixes the depravity issue is changing the heart. Actually it is replaced. That does NOT happen at birth.
Yes, evil men still do tighteous deeds.Nope. An unbeliever can still do a righteous act in not murdering out of anger but that hardly save them from their debt of sin. Only Christ can do that. Good question though.
Yeah if what calvinists teach is correct, this verse is just absolutely untruthful and God is lying to the israelites.It would make a lot of the bible nonsensical if this for instance was a false reality God is giving them
“I call heaven and earth to record this day against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing: therefore choose life, that both thou and thy seed may live:”
Deuteronomy 30:19
why would he just tell them they weren’t capable of understanding him ? Instead he explained that his word wasn’t beyond tbier ability to hear and indersrsnd that it was given to them and put in thier heart so that they could obey it .
“For this commandment which I command thee this day, it is not hidden from thee, neither is it far off. It is not in heaven, that thou shouldest say, Who shall go up for us to heaven, and bring it unto us, that we may hear it, and do it? Neither is it beyond the sea, that thou shouldest say, Who shall go over the sea for us, and bring it unto us, that we may hear it, and do it?
But the word is very nigh unto thee, in thy mouth, and in thy heart, that thou mayest do it.
See, I have set before thee this day life and good, and death and evil;”
Deuteronomy 30:11-15 KJV
There is a thing that happens .. its called being BORN AGAIN. Then we are no longer a bad tree.I keep hearing bad trees cannot bring forth good fruit. Completely agree. But the fruits of repentance start the second after you repent not before. So how do you know you need to repent if your heart is still wicked?
Fruits worthy of metanoia is in the Bible:I keep wondering where "metanoia" is defined a producing good fruit in scripture?
How does some one turn the words " God GAVE man a way out" into "God now owes man something?"
Its blowing my mind. I mean they are completely the opposite things. Not even easily confused with one another.
Yes He did. The idea of two wills is something imagined, just philosophy which the Bible tells us to avoid.But did God purpose in eternity to save all men w/o exception? God's decretive will and his desirous will are two different things.
Also, have you ever asked yourself: Why would an omniscient God who knows all things offer his gift of grace to people He knew in eternity would never accept it? Hasn't God always known the end from the very beginning?
Another question: Why would God offer the gift of grace to people He never knew in eternity?
Amen. Once you have a preconceived interpretive grid like TULIP, you must force all of Scripture to adhere to it and you gotta make all these non-biblical categories.Indeed.
No free-willer is arguing that God is NOT the First mover, the Initiator, the Caller, the Inviter to the wedding, the Bridegroom who is doing the wooing.
Of course He is. He is always first. He is also last.
But we created beings are "called"..........to respond. We either "receive" or do not "receive".
Extensive convoluted commentary is not required for something a child can so easily understand.