I already explained what Jesus meant by water after properly harmonizing scripture with scripture.
Jesus already connected living water and the Holy Spirit with eternal life in (John 4:10,14; 7:37-39) Notice in John 4:14, Jesus said - but whoever
drinks of the
water that I shall give him will
never thirst. But the
water that I shall give him will become in him a
fountain of water springing up into everlasting life. *Also see 1 Corinthians 12:13 for
drink into one Spirit. Plain ordinary H20 has no power to accomplish this. The natural man can only seem to understand natural water. (1 Corinthians 2:14)
I have no problem with your pet verse Acts 2:38. I only have a problem with your eisegesis. You have a problem with Biblical hermeneutics. Compare the fact that these Gentiles in
Acts 10:45 received
the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with
Acts 2:38 -
the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was
BEFORE water baptism. (
Acts 10:47)
In
Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in
Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what
Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
In
Acts 10:43 we read
..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received
the gift of the Holy Spirit -
Acts 10:45 -
when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ -
Acts 11:17 - (compare with
Acts 16:31 -
Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism -
Acts 10:47. This is referred to as
repentance unto life -
Acts 11:18.
*So, the only logical conclusion
when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (
Luke 24:47;
Acts 2:38;
3:19;
5:31;
10:43-47;
11:17,
18; 13:38-39;
15:8,
9;
16:31;
26:18).
*Perfect Harmony*
(John 4:10,14; 7:37-39) WATER AND SPIRIT!!!
I don't refuse to listen to Peter. I just don't listen to you. I also don't refuse to listen to Peter in Acts 3:19 -
Repent therefore and
be converted, that your
sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord. *What happened to baptism? Repentance (faith implied or assumed) is unto the remission of sins and water baptism "follows." We also see repentance (faith implied or assumed) connected with remission of sins in Acts 5:31. In Acts 10:43, Peter said - Of Him all the prophets bear witness that through His name
everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins. *What happened to baptism? In Acts 11:17, we read - If therefore God gave them the
same gift (Holy Spirit) as He gave us
when we believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could withstand God?” 18 When they heard these things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, “Then God has also granted to the Gentiles
repentance unto life.” *Hermeneutics.
No, they were reborn, and three sounds souls were added when they
repented unto salvation (faith implied or assumed) and water baptism "followed." In Acts 4:4 we see that those who heard the word
believed; and the
number of the men came to be about five thousand. In Acts 5:14, we read - And
believers were
increasingly added to the Lord, multitudes of both men and women. Nothing here about water baptism being the cause. In Acts 13:38, we read - Therefore let it be known to you, brethren, that through this Man is preached to you the
forgiveness of sins; 39 and by Him everyone who
believes is
justified from all things from which you could not be justified by the law of Moses. Repentance is implied or assumed. *What happened to baptism?
*Hermeneutics.
It seems like scriptures that mention baptism and speaking in tongues are about the only scriptures you even care to read. You basically ignore multiple passages of scripture that I have shared with you which refute your eisegesis.
Peter did know what needed to happen for people to be saved. (Acts 3:19; 10:43; 11:14-18) If water baptism was necessary for salvation, then he would have surely mentioned it here.
That statement is the epitome of IRONY.
I never said I was comfortable in my sins. That is a strawman argument. Works-salvationists hate once saved always saved because it strips them of credit and boasting in SELF. All have sinned and come short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23) and the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. (Romans 6:23) The blood of Christ washed away my sins when I placed my faith (belief, trust, reliance) in Him alone for salvation. (Acts 10:43; 13:38-39; 26:18; Romans 3:24-26)
Faith is
accounted for righteousness and
God imputes righteousness apart from works. (Romans 4:5-6)
Absolutely false. More eisegesis. Salvation is not probation. Eternal life is not temporary life. Jesus is the door. He is not a revolving door.
How ironic! That is exactly what YOU do. You are a one string banjo. Acts 2:38 - plink, plink.