The Error is Baptism in Jesus name only for salvation
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Thank you for sharing ALL of GODS word is good.
What do these verse say and mean?
Acts 2:38-39
King James Version
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
39 For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.
Acts 22:16
King James Version
16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.
Do you honestly believe she has shared anything that added to my knowledge. Read the posts. They are written to a first grader.
I have suspicions of my own. I suspect you changed the topic from righteousness to sovereignty because you realized your previous posts had Jesus acting in unrighteousness.
And for the record, I have never posted that people can't choose, but you are welcome to try and locate a post where I did.
In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism. (Acts 10:47)
In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 - when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.
*So, the only logical conclusion when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 13:38-39; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*
In Acts 22:16, how did baptism "wash away" Paul's sins? Well, it couldn't do this literally, for Christ literally "put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself" (Hebrews 9:26). The language in Acts 22:16 is similar to the statement of Christ when He took the bread and said, "This is my body" (Matthew 26:26). The bread was only the emblem of His body. Baptism is the emblem of the washing away of sins by the death of Christ. Every time a believer is immersed he washes away his sins in the same sense Paul did: not literally, but ceremonially, pointing to the death of Christ by which sins were actually washed away.
Greek Scholar A.T. Robertson explains: As in Romans 6:4-6 where baptism is the picture of death, burial and resurrection, so here baptism pictures the change that had already taken place when Paul surrendered to Jesus on the way. Baptism here pictures the washing away of sins by the blood of Christ. Therefore to take Paul's statement in Acts 22:16 as anything more than a metaphor is to confuse the symbolic rite with what the rite represents.
Acts 2:21 And everyone who "calls on the name of the Lord" will be saved.
Romans 10:13 for, Everyone who "calls on the name of the Lord" will be saved.
In calling on the name of the Lord to be saved, we are relying on the name of the Lord, trusting in Him for salvation. When you call upon Jesus to save you to it is that you trust in Him to come to your aid. Inherent in your calling upon Jesus is the essential faith that He can and will save you. So, in essence, to call on the name of the Lord unto salvation is to trust exclusively in Jesus as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation, that He alone will save you.
These are the verses:
Acts 10:47-48
New International Version
47 “Surely no one can stand in the way of their being baptized with water. They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have.” 48 So he ordered that they be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked Peter to stay with them for a few days.
What did the Jewish Christians "see"?
They saw people speaking in tongues. Nothing more and nothing less. They did not see people receiving the remission of sins.
We cannot read into these two verses that the gentiles were given the remission of sins at the speaking of Peter.
People want this to be the case in order to support faith alone regeneration theology but this is a gross assumption.
God leading these gentiles into a group session of tongues is not proof of the remission of sins without water baptism.
Unless you just want it to be so.
Can't explain, what one, anyone knows when born again by God for them through risen Son to them
God knows each of us all personally, and so every person knows with in them as states in Romans 8 about this truth. I simply see to not ever live again like a refugee. I see in that willing one time death first we are all reconciled (2 Cor 5:17-20) which got done by Son when he said John 19:30, he fulfilled Matthew 5:17 for us to either believe God does love us or not. To me in truth God loves us all 1 John2:1-27
The thread question is do people think those baptized Matthew 28:19 are saved or not?
My question is then what would disqualify them?
Because they don't think like what the scholars and theologians claim?
Let's say the scholars and theologians are 100% correct that Matthew 28:19 and Acts 2:38 are all about Jesus Christ but those who were baptized via Matthew 28:19 believed it's about a triunity does that negate their baptism in water?
Personally speaking here, I believe anyone baptized Matthew 28:19 or Acts 2:38 will be in Heaven because they're saved first before they got water baptized.
WOW, both verse are very clear.
Acts 2:38
1. Repent,
2. and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins,
3. and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
HOW DID YOU GET "repent unto the remission of your sins," OUT OF THAT?
What does that even mean???
Acts 22:16 And now why tarriest thou?
1. arise,
2. and be baptized, and wash away thy sins,
3. calling on the name of the Lord.
Isn't it much easier just to read and let HIS word do the talking?
That way there is no need for all of the talking trying to make it say WHAT IT DOESN'T SAY.
So tell me in your mind, how do we get rid of our sins?
In detail using HIS word.
There’s that word “only” again. It’s not there, you know. You ADDED it to Eph.2:8-9 but it does not say that. Acts 2:38 says that remission of sins comes as a result of baptism. And verse 8-9 of Eph. 2 does not even mention remission of sins. But those are the very words Peter used in Acts 2:38. And while it is true that we are saved by the grace of God who made it possible for us to have salvation, through faith or belief in Jesus as the Son of God, there is nothing in that verse that says that that “ALONE” or “ ONLY” is what saves us. Obviously, other scriptures say that there are other things that save us as well as faith. Peter listed “repentance” as being necessary to salvation (Acts 2:38), and Jesus confirmed that in Luke 13. Actsc17:30 proves that it is a COMMAND of God. Romans 10:10 also, says Confession saves us. And of course, 1 Peter 3:21 says baptism saves us. How wise God was, NOT to put the word “ONLY” or “ALONE” in any verses that teach salvation by faith; because if He had, then we would have contradictions in the Bible. Think how confusing it would be if Jesus actually had said that we are saved by “faith alone” and then we read Roman’s 10:10 where confession is unto salvation, and Acts 2:38; where Peter tells them to “repent” to be saved; not to mention 1 Peter 3:21! That says baptism saves us. Could we trust the Bible? Wouldn’t that make scripture contradict scripture? But, as it is, none of the scriptures used by men to teach salvation by faith only have the word “only” in them—even though men put it there. God did not. That means none of the verses about being saved by faith are exclusive. And that allows for “repentance”, “confession”, and “baptism” which all have scriptures that include them in God’s plan of salvation.
Interesting that Paul told the jailer in Acts 16, “Believe…and you SHALL be saved—future tense—instead of saying “Believe..and you ARE saved. Present tense. If you are saved at the moment you believe, shouldn’t salvation be present right then? Same thing with John 3:16. It’s NOT “ whosoever believes in Him WILL not perish; it’s “whosoever believes in Him SHOULD not perish. Those who believe in Christ SHOULD be willing to do all that Jesus has commanded us to do, and thereby receive salvation. But not all do. Acts 16 proves that “believing” means much more than just mental acknowledgement. After Paul and Silas “SPOKE THE WORD OF THE LORD “ to him and his house, they were immediately baptized! In the wee hours of the morning. Immediately!! How did they know to be baptized? Because baptism is included in “speaking the word of the Lord.” It’s part of the gospel of Christ. Verse 34 is interesting. It says that after baptism they ( the jailer and his house) rejoiced HAVING BELIEVED IN GOD. This is proof that faith ( belief) means much more than just mental acknowledgement.
Same thing with Phillip and the eunuch in Acts 8. Phillip “preached Jesus” to the eunuch and as soon as he came to some water he wanted to be baptized! How did he even know about baptism? He had to hear about it when Phillip “preached Jesus” to him. Baptism was a very important part of the gospel of Christ. Even necessary, because EVERY TIME Jesus was preached, in every case, the person was baptized. Salvation is not by faith only—just what James said. ( James 2:24).
Because I don't speak in tongues.
In my 50 years as a Christian I have only spoke in tongues twice.
That was on my own prayer time and it just happened.
Good morning, you said,
Personally speaking here, I believe anyone baptized Matthew 28:19 or Acts 2:38 will be in Heaven because they're saved first before they got water baptized.
Two questions please.
1. If we are told to be baptized in JESUS name ONLY and you think different ways work why did those who were baptized by John have to be re-baptized? And when they were it was in JESUS name?
2 Corinthians 13:1 This is the third time I am coming to you. In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established.
Is there a second place in HIS word where ANYONE was told or baptized in the name of the father, the son and the Holy Ghost? Why do people do it then?
Since sin sepetates us from GOD, and the only way to get rid of them is being baptized in JESUS name.
2. How can a person be saved WITHOUT getting rid of their sins?
These verses below are very clear and do not harmonize with your biased interpretation of Acts 2:38 and Acts 22:16. Various false religions and cults that promote salvation by works are in agreement with you though - red flag.
Luke 24:47 - and that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His name to all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 3:19 - Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 5:31 - Him God has exalted to His right hand to be Prince and Savior, to give repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 10:43 - Of Him all the prophets bear witness that through His name everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins.
44 While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message. 45 All the circumcised believers who came with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also. 46 For they were hearing them speaking with tongues and exalting God. (spiritual gift that is ONLY for the body of Christ - 1 Corinthians 12) Then Peter answered, 47 “Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?” *What happened to baptism in verse 43? These Gentiles believed, received the gift of the Holy Spirit (confirmed by speaking in tongues) and were saved BEFORE water baptism.
Acts 11:17 - If therefore God gave them the same gift (Holy Spirit) as He gave us when we believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could withstand God?” 18 When they heard these things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, “Then God has also granted to the Gentiles repentance unto life.” *What happened to baptism in verse 17?
Acts 13:38 - Therefore, let it be known to you, brethren, that through this Man is preached to you the forgiveness of sins; 39 and by Him everyone who believes is justified from all things from which you could not be justified by the law of Moses. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 15:7 - And when there had been much dispute, Peter rose up and said to them: “Men and brethren, you know that a good while ago God chose among us, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe. 8 So God, who knows the heart, acknowledged them by giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He did to us, 9 and made no distinction between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 16:31 - So, they said, “Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved, you and your household.” *What happened to baptism?
Acts 26:18 - to open their eyes, in order to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins and an inheritance among those who are sanctified by faith in Me. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
So, as I already shared with you in post #426, faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit. (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18) *Perfect Harmony*
As Greek scholar AT Robertson explains: And be baptized every one of you (κα βαπτισθητω εκαστος υμων). Rather, "And let each one of you be baptized." Change of number from plural to singular and of person from second to third. This change marks a break in the thought here that the English translation does not preserve.
One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not. My view is decidedly against the idea that Peter, Paul, or any one in the New Testament taught baptism as essential to the remission of sins or the means of securing such remission. So, I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of the forgiveness of sins which they had already received.
https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/rwp/acts-2.html
Scripture MUST harmonize with scripture. Now good luck harmonizing your biased interpretation of Acts 2:38 with Acts 10:43-47.
CONTINUED..
Acts 3:19 - Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord.
Jamison, Fausset, and Brown Commentary makes not of the importance of the Greek in Ananias' statement. When Ananias tells Paul to "arise, be baptized, wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord," the tense of the last command is literally "having called" (aorist middle participle). "Calling on [epikalesamenos] --- 'having (that is, after having) called on,' referring the confession of Christ which preceded baptism." [Jamison, Fausset, and Brown Commentary, vol. 3 pg. 160]. Kenneth Wuest picks up on this Greek nuance and translates the verse as follows: "And now, why are you delaying? Having arisen, be baptized and wash away your sins, having previously called upon His Name." (Acts 22:16, Wuest's Expanded NT).
Paul had already believed in Christ when Ananias came to pray for him to receive his sight (Acts 9:17). It also should be noted that Paul at the time when Ananias prayed for him to receive his sight, he was filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17)--this was BEFORE he was water baptized (Acts 9:18). Verse 17 connects his being filled with the Spirit with the receiving of his sight. We know that he received his sight prior to his baptism.
Excellent article on Acts 22:16 - https://kentbrandenburg.blogspot.com/2015/03/acts-2216-baptism-essential-for.html
You need to consider ALL of His word and properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine or else you will end up with contradictions and salvation by works. No scripture is to be interpreted in isolation from the totality of scripture. Practically speaking, a few controversial verses are to be subservient to numerous and even more clear verses, and not vice versa.
The Bible makes it clear in many passages of scripture that man is saved through belief/faith - "apart from additions or modifications." (John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18; Romans 1:16; 3:24-28; 4:5-6; 5:1-2; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 2:16; 3:6-14, 26; Ephesians 2:8,9; Philippians 3:9; 2 Timothy 3:15; Hebrews 10:39; 1 John 5:13 etc..). *What happened to baptism?
Like so many water-salvationists do with (Luke 24:47; Acts 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18) plus many passages of scripture which make it clear that man is saved through belief/faith "apart from additions or modifications."
I already told you in post #398.
Acts 10:43 - Of Him all the prophets bear witness that through His name everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins.
Acts 13:38 - Therefore let it be known to you, brethren, that through this Man is preached to you the forgiveness of sins; 39 And by Him everyone who believes is justified from all things from which you could not be justified by the law of Moses.
Acts 26:18 - to open their eyes, in order to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins and an inheritance among those who are sanctified by faith in Me.
It takes living water to reach the heart. (John 4:10,14; 7:37-39) Plain ordinary H20 has no power to reach the heart or literally wash away sins. Are you a Oneness Pentecostal?
The gospel is the "good news" of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ (1 Corinthians 15:1-4) and is the power of God unto salvation to everyone that BELIEVES.. (Romans 1:16) To "believe" the gospel is to trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation . The gospel is a message of grace that is to be received through faith. The gospel is not a set of rituals to perform, a code of laws to be obeyed or a check list of good works (including water baptism) to accomplish as a prerequisite for salvation.
Why don't you just read his word for what it says?
I'm not one to right books to prove his word, all of the talking just goes down so many different roads nothing will ever get resolved.
I'm sure you would agree the MOST important thing is being reborn?
I could give you some insight on the parts of GOD'S word you shared but no reason to add scriptures to the mix without understanding the FOUNDATION.
Why do you say my bias interpretation?
Why do you say "Various false religions and cults that promote salvation by works are in agreement with you though" Do you call obeying and being baptized a work?
I'm not saying anything at all, I DID share HIS WORD SO WHOS DOING THE TALKING yep JESUS is.
Acts 2:38 and 22:16 are VERY CLEAR your sins are remitted when you are baptized in JESUS name!!!!!!
Since you will not accept HIS word I'm going to guess and say you have not been baptized in JESUS wonderful name???
Tell me since JESUS said in John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
And after he ascended and HIS disciples were filled with the Holy Ghost and spoke in tongues then as you shared Luke 24:47 it come to pass and Peter gave that message in Acts 2:38.
What do you think JESUS said and meant in John 3:5? We have to be born of WATER AND SPIRIT TO ENTER?
You are a cherry picker who does not consider the totality of scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine. You only seem to care about what your pet verses "on the surface" appear to say and most likely to accommodate a biased church doctrine. I accept Jesus' word. I just don't accept your eisegesis.
In John 3:5, Jesus said born of water and the Spirit. He did not say born of baptism and the Spirit and He also did not say unless one is water baptized; he cannot enter the kingdom of God. In the very next chapter, Jesus mentions "living water" in John 4:10, 14 and He connects living water with eternal life in John 4:14. Also, in John 7:38-39, we read - "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke concerning the Spirit. *Did you see that? The Holy Spirit is the source of living water and spiritual cleansing.
If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again. So, to automatically read "baptism" into John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted.
Also "water" is used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is associated with cleansing or washing. (John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26) When we are born again, the Holy Spirit begets new life, so that we are said to become "partakers of the divine nature." (2 Peter 1:4) The new birth is brought to pass through "incorruptible seed, by the word of God, which lives and abides forever" (I Peter 1:23) and the Holy Spirit accomplishes the miracle of regeneration. (Titus 3:5)
I did not see where you answered my question so I will ask it again. Are you a Oneness Pentacostal?
Scripture reveals obedience to water baptism in the name of Jesus is an integral part of salvation:That's what I found online on a Oneness site but that is small beans compared to you saying a person is not saved if they are not water baptized as in the post above I'm sure you read. That, is what is well documented
"ocean, post: 5510345, member: 333985"]looks like we have a case of wansvic telling someone that if you are not baptized, you are cut off. all the questions asked him are answered by him somewhere even though he refuses to answer now . the reference is to the NT, so no water, no farther is what is being said by wansvic . cut off from the covenant, would be the NT covenant. smh this was in a thread asking the question 'how do you get saved' so obviously wansvic considers water baptism an integral part of salvation
wansvic post 549
God commanded everyone living in the NT to be water baptized in the name of Jesus for the remission of sin. Just as He commanded circumcision of those living in the OT. Those who refuse to believe and obey His command of water baptism will find themselves cut off from the covenant.
Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.
And with many other words did he testify and exhort, saying, Save yourselves from this untoward generation.
Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.
And they continued stedfastly in the apostles' doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers." Acts 2:38-42