Loss of salvation???

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posthuman said:
did Adam know God isn't evil? how?
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Adam had no knowledge of what evil is.

Don't you get?
Adam had to eat the fruit first before he could have any concepts of good and evil.



And the Lord God said,
“The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil.”
​
Genesis 3:22a
 
Genez said:
Adam had no knowledge of what evil is.

Don't you get?
Adam had to eat the fruit first before he could have any concepts of good and evil.



And the Lord God said,
“The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil.”
​
Genesis 3:22a
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so in your opinion God unjustly accounted sin to Adam?
or in your opinion Jesus is wrong?

John 9:41​
Jesus said unto them, ​
If you were blind, you would have no sin​
​
you are never in a good position when you find yourself agreeing with Satan.
'man only knows goodness by rejecting God' comes from the Liar.

i suggest you reevaluate.
the text is not saying what you think it says.
 
Genez said:
And the Lord God said,
“The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil.”
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why does God not say this about Woman?
why only Adam?

why does God not say this until Adam changes her name to Eve and God has clothed them?
 
posthuman said:
Christ calls him a wicked servant.
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Agreed. He was also a servant given grace, agreed?
posthuman said:
there is no indication he was ever saved.
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???
There is every indication that his debt was forgiven by the grace of his master, agreed?
posthuman said:
he represents the Pharisees in the parable, persecuting the saints and rejecting his Master, Christ-God.
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Religious conjecture.

Regardless of who you think the unforgiving servant represents, his debt was forgiven and then the debt forgiveness was reversed.

You are simply dancing around the obvious. Keep your personal sensibilities out of the equation.

Just let God be God.
 
posthuman said:
so far, you have not answered my question, so i keep asking.

do you agree with Satan, that Adam and Woman only gained a basic sense of right and wrong by committing sin?

why then would God have only said this about Adam, not Woman/Eve, and why not when they ate the fruit, but only after Adam changed her name and God clothed them?
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I have answered this question in posts #1040 and #1028

You learn the same way you learn anything, by being told. Believe it or not, your choice.
 
Lamar said:
Really? So why did the other servants report the unforgiving servants actions to the master if the unforgiving servant had refused the grace of his own debt?

Was the master unaware that the unforgiving servant had rejected his grace?

Why did the master feel the need to revoke the forgiveness of the debt of the unforgiving servant?


This is theological nonsense. You are simply grasping at straws.

The parable is clear, grace can be revoked.
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Here is an example of grace given and received. Do you think the servant acted like this? Did he boast of being free from debt and willingly forgive the debt of others?

2 Corinthians 12:9
And He said to me, “My grace is sufficient for you, for My strength is made perfect in weakness.” Therefore most gladly I will rather boast in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me.

Grace is more than God just being "a nice guy". It's real power, so one must need be careful how one responds to grace.

If grace can be revoked then the victory of the Cross is unstable and those who stand at the Great White Throne will need another avenue for their sins to be forgiven. As it stands now, unbelievers will stand there and see all their sin is forgiven in the One they rejected and they will gnash their teeth in frustration.

God never takes back what He gives freely, it is either accepted or rejected.
 
sawdust said:
I have answered this question in posts #1040 and #1028

You learn the same way you learn anything, by being told. Believe it or not, your choice.
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in neither of those posts have you answered any of my questions.

you have slanderously called me evil,
you have slanderously said Satan speaks the truth,
and you have slanderously said God is evil,

but you have not answered my questions.

i'll repeat:

if Adam has zero concept of goodness how can he by comparing subjective outcomes about which he has no concept of how to evaluate, learn anything about those things he has zero concept of?

how can Adam be judged for doing evil if Adam is completely blind even to the very idea of right or wrong, and God says those who are blind have no sin?

if you and Satan are correct, that man can only be like God by doing evil, why does God only say of Adam, not Woman, that he has become "like us" - and why does He never say this until Adam has changed his dead wife's name to "Life" and God has clothed them?
 
sawdust said:
You learn the same way you learn anything, by being told. Believe it or not, your choice.
Click to expand...
Psalm19-1s.png

Psalm 19:1
:)
 
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posthuman said:
why does God say only about Adam he has become like one of us, not Woman, and not until after Adam has changed her name to Eve and God has clothed them?
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Adam and Eve are one. That is why God refers to them as he. Kind of like God being three, but scripture speaking of the Godhead as He and I.
 
Pilgrimshope said:
who leads to what

“Jesus answered and said unto them, This is the work of God, that ye believe on him whom he hath sent.”
‭‭John‬ ‭6:29‬ ‭KJV‬‬

“ Jesus answered, Thou sayest that I am a king. To this end was I born, and for this cause came I into the world, that I should bear witness unto the truth. Every one that is of the truth heareth my voice.”
‭‭John‬ ‭18:37‬ ‭KJV‬‬

“Then said Jesus to those Jews which believed on him, If ye continue in my word, then are ye my disciples indeed; and ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free.”
‭‭John‬ ‭8:31-32‬ ‭KJV‬‬

“And he said ( who ) unto them, Go ye into all the world, ( where ) and preach the gospel ( what ) to every creature. ( to whom )

(binary result for every creature based on tbier response )

He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved;

but he that believers not shall be damned.”
‭‭Mark‬ ‭16:15-16‬ ‭KJV‬‬
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Actually, I believe the Greek more accurately says, John 6:29 "This is the work that God requires (ergon tou theou, the work of God) so that (hina) you might start to believe on Him Whom He has sent. The work of God is done so that they might believe. "This is the work of God" refers back in the passage to v. 7
" Labour not for the food which perishes, but for that food which endures into everlasting life, which the Son of man shall give to you: for him has God the Father sealed." The work of God is our labouring/striving to get into a position to hear the word of God, because faith comes by hearing the word of God, and salvation is through faith.
 
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Cameron143 said:
They both committed the same act, but they did so for different reasons. Eve was deceived. She believed what Satan said and ate. Adam was not deceived. He did not believe what Satan said. If he had, he would also have been deceived. He sinned believing death would follow. It can be debated how much he understood about that death, but the Bible is clear that Adam was not deceived.
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St. Paul tells us that Adam was not deceived to the point when Eve is deceived and was in transgression. But they were both disobedient. How then would you characterize Adam's sin? Would you say he was somewhat 'self-deceived' or would you characterize it as something else? Can you offer one precise word in place of "deceived" (which we can definitely apply to Eve since the verse is offering the descriptive phrase 'not deceived' of Adam in contrast to her). If he was not deceived, then what was he?

If anyone could offer one word to help me understand Adam to be other than 'not deceived,' it'd be most helpful.
 
Mem said:
St. Paul tells us that Adam was not deceived to the point when Eve is deceived and was in transgression. But they were both disobedient. How then would you characterize Adam's sin? Would you say he was somewhat 'self-deceived' or would you characterize it as something else? Can you offer one precise word in place of "deceived" (which we can definitely apply to Eve since the verse is offering the descriptive phrase 'not deceived' of Adam in contrast to her). If he was not deceived, then what was he?

If anyone could offer one word to help me understand Adam to be other than 'not deceived,' it'd be most helpful.
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Deceived means tricked or fooled. Adam sinned without being fooled.
 
posthuman said:
Really.

Poor Jesus, forsaken.
How pitiful.
Remember how much God suffered for you, poor God.
Be a better person. tithe.

i bet that is exactly the theme of every Ishtar sermon you have heard for the last 20 years.
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He was forsaken, for our sin. This was Him taking the punishment for our sin and you scoff at it? How about when He said Himself "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?", why has God done what? "FORSAKEN Him". If the Father didn't forsake Him for your sin, then you still have it coming. This is the part of the sacrifice SO many well meaning Christians fall off at. They're good with God laying His life down for our sin, but get real sketchy when God the just is invoked. This is half the amazing point. Not only was God willing to lay down His life for us, but God was willing to put our punishment on the only innocent man that ever walked the earth, His own Son with who He was well pleased. God is perfectly just so cannot let one sin go unpunished, this is the unbelievable thing about salvation, Do not rob God of any of His glory, and applying our punishment to Jesus, the full wrath of the almighty God, so that His righteousness could be applied to us without His perfect justness being compromised at all, is a huge part of it. I'm sorry if this makes you feel upset, but if you are born again then it is because God was willing to do this, and to deny ANY part of it robs Him of due glory. If you think this makes Jesus look "poor pitiful", then I think you may not be as close to Him or the truth as you feel you are. The truth is an affront to those who are perishing.
 
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