Hello Pilgrimshope.
When you say that Gentiles are not under the the old covenant. Obviously, your referring
to the Mosaic Covenant since Gentiles cannot be physically circumcised. In addition, you must
also include the Abrahamic Covenant for the same reason. Because Abraham was commanded
to be circumcised.
This then generates some difficult questions.
Was John the Baptist speaking only to the Hebrews or was John speaking to the Gentiles
also?
“When you say that Gentiles are not under the the old covenant. Obviously, your referring to the Mosaic Covenant since Gentiles cannot be physically circumcised.”
well first what prevents a gentile from being circumcised ? The Old Testament allowed for gentiles to convert and be circumcised I don’t think you understand what I’m saying I hadn’t even mentioned circumcision bekng any reason for anything .
youll find what I’m talking about in Galatians three Paul explains it well
the gospel is
Abraham’s covenant pertaining to all nations it was first announced to him in genesis chapter 12. Before the law was given to israel through Moses as thier specific covenant
what im saying is a covenant is whatever the
word of the covenant says and it’s made with the people it is made with. So this covenant wasn’t made with gentiles but with Israelites is my point but specifically with the chrildren of isreal ( , jacob)
“
These are the words of the covenant, which the LORD commanded Moses to make with the children of Israel in the land of Moab, beside the covenant which he made with them in Horeb.”
Deuteronomy 29:1 KJV
“And the LORD said unto Moses, Write thou these words: for
after the tenor of these words I have made a covenant with thee and with Israel.”
Exodus 34:27
So my point is the old covenant made through Moses
with israel of found here in Moses words in thier covenant law
“And
he took the book of the covenant, and read in the audience of the people:
and
they said, All that the LORD hath said will we do, and be obedient. ( those distinct fleshly people have now entered a covenant” an agreement “based on what the book of Moses law says
to them then the lifeblood of animals that purchased that covenant according to those words is shed )
And
Moses took the blood, and sprinkled it on the people, and said, Behold the blood of the covenant, which the LORD hath made with you concerning all these words.”
Exodus 24:7-8 KJV
My point isn’t about circumcision the New Testament has its own true circumcision based on Jesus death and resurrection. It’s about the covenants themselves and the audiences for both you see how the old was spoken specifically to them ? The gospel is sent to all and is Gods covenant with mankind just as the old was his covenant with Israel which they broke
“And he said unto them,
Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.”
Mark 16:15-16 KJV
I’m saying if god gave a covenant to israel its based on what it sa and is for who he made it with
and im saying God made a new covenant with israel and he then included gentiles in the audience that the covenant is made for and with . Whereas thenold requires one to convert to Judaism through circumcision and adherence to Moses law
“and I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and
in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed.”
Genesis 12:3 KJV
Galatians three paul explains all of this well it’s worth a good read and even a bit of a study of you believe Paul’s explainations I mean How the gospel came before the law then the law was given and it was broken and then after the law the gospel was fulfilled and that covenant came forth which is the true covenant and
not this one which was added after because they sinned worshipping the calf
“Wherefore then serveth
the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.”
Galatians 3:19 KJV
The law was only a bridge to the gospel dealing with man’s sin in between like a rough draft
“But
before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster
to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.”
Galatians 3:23-24 KJV
I’m not sure it creates the difficult questions rether than answering them Galatians theee I mean which is what I’m talking about .
as to John the Baptist he is the fulfillment of the ot prophecies of the last prophet
of Israel before the messiah would arrive for instance
“
Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the Lord, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he shall come, saith the LORD of hosts.”
Malachi 3:1 KJV
“
The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God; As
it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, Which shall prepare thy way before thee. John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.”
Mark 1:1-2, 4 KJV
John was soecifically preaching to Israel
as was Jesus first.
It’s
after they reject him that the same gospel is sent to everyone else
“And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.”
Matthew 28:18-20 KJV
Who John was preaching to doesn’t matter nor does circumcision to what I’m saying there are two covenants each is made with a specific people one with Israel’s children and descendants and the other with all creation all mankind of all nations beginning at Jerusalem and spreading to everyone else through the great commission to preach the gospel of the kingdom to all people and invite thoer belief in him
Really? 1 Cor 3:15.
