Here's my take on this:
Peddle or corrupt the word of God
2 Corinthians 2:17
King James Version
17 For we are not as many, which corrupt the word of God: but as of sincerity, but as of God, in the sight of God speak we in Christ.
New International Version
17 Unlike so many, we do not
peddle the word of God for profit. On the contrary, in Christ we speak before God with sincerity, as those sent from God.
The Greek where it comes from is the word ‘kapēleuontes’, which to the many Modern English Bible translations literally means; to make a trade of. Further, it said that "it is that it would be to make a trade of the Gospel, the implication in that context would be to make the Gospel into a business."
While at the outset, peddle and other same words like merchandise, sell or commercialize seem appealing, this is not exactly what it meant by Apostle Paul.
Speaking of "corrupt" words of God, I think of a few if not the KJV alone renders in the English translation for 2 Cor. 2:17 translating the Greek καπηλεύοντες (kapēleuontes) as ‘corrupt’, all other Modern English versions say either "peddle, market, merchandise, sell, commercialize.”
Here’s the reason why KJV stands out amongst numerous newer English translations of the passage. I have also to point out that it in any way had something to do with trading the Gospel thereby making the gospel into a monetary gain. Now, the factual evidence that surrounds the text in question and perhaps the best reason to conclude the KJV is superior to the newer English versions. The context is seen as
1. Words that are preached (vs. 12)
2 The word of God (vs. 17)
3. Words that are WRITTEN (3:1)
4. Words found in epistles (3:2-3)
And so, nobody was selling anything. No one was “peddling” God’s words. They were corrupting them.” Paul said he has not even coveted man’s silver, or gold or apparel. Acts 20:23. Paul did not sell the word of God for monetary gain.
Historically, corruption in the first and second centuries abounds with Gnostics' beliefs and so the corruption. in which Paul is warning about the “mishandling of the scriptures”. 2 Cor. 4:2
It is even interesting to note that Bill Mounce’s definition is based on Strong’s definition which is Thayer. may perhaps an interesting that "peddling" is just a gloss meaning, in other words, it is just a marginal note or an explanation. It would seem to suggest but it is not ultimately the right words of the given text and often times it fall short of the true idea within the context so that it is not preferably used or being disregarded.
https://www.billmounce.com/greek-dictionary/kapeleuo
Dictionary:
καπηλεύω
Greek transliteration:
kapēleuō
Simplified transliteration:
kapeleuo
Principal Parts:
-, -, -, -, -
Numbers
Strong's number:
2585
GK Number:
2836
Statistics
Frequency in New Testament: 1
Morphology of Biblical Greek Tag: v-1a(6)
Gloss:
to act as a peddler, trade-in for profit
Definition:
pr. to be κάπηλος, a retailer; to peddle with;
to corrupt, adulterate, 2 Cor. 2:17*
A Greek Lexicon by Henry Lidell and Robert Scott 1901 p.742 says it is corrupt when it is used biblically.
https://archive.org/stream/greekenglishlex00lidduoft...
English is Germanic which belongs to the Indo-European language and traces its roots further to the 4th CE. Germanic Language of the Goths. "Little Wolf" translated from the Greek to Gothic language has “maidjadans” which simply means to change, to corrupt.
Corinthians II 2:17 Gothic Bible 4Ce.
A unte ni sium swe sumai maidjandans waurd gudis, ak us hlutriþai, ak swaswe us guda in andwairþja gudis in Xristau rodjam.
https://books.google.com.ph/books?id=VBsJAAAAQAAJ...
Briefly, the English bible translation of Wycliffe 1382 was translated in the Latin Language to have it as to “adulterate”. This is important since the English word "adulterate" has the original meaning of "corrupt, debase especially by admixture". The OED says adultery also of the other meaning which is a sexual sin. The KJV is of course not yet in the scene and when it has been translated they consider the Latin Language of “adulterate”. it is implicit, however, that they have rightfully translated it as “corrupt” which does not convey the latter meaning of taking an adultery or a sexual sin.
The OED defined the word ‘corrupt’ relative to language or text as
corrupt, adj.
Of language, texts, etc.: Destroyed in purity, debased; altered from the original or correct condition by ignorance, carelessness, additions, etc…
So peddling of the NIV or the NET does not convey what Paul meant. It is to corrupt the word of God.