The Error of KJV-Onlyism

[Bible_Highlighter]

Hebrews 4:12, "For the word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart."

That’s what the King James Bible did for me. It pierced me. I was saved by hearing words from the King James Bible. It was a sharp sword that cut my heart and I accepted Jesus Christ as my Savior, and I was forever changed.

It is NOT a 413-year-old Englyshe document, based on inferior sources and written in an archaic language that few clearly understand.

So nobody was saved until the Modern Bibles came out in 1881?
Nobody could live righteously and understand the King James Bible prior to 1881?

I am so glad that the Pilgrims fled King James' persecution to maintain their religious freedom!

Perplexity search says,

"King James I of England did not directly put forth religious persecution. In fact, the King James Bible emphasizes principles such as not seeking the propagation of the gospel by force[1]. The King James Version of the Bible was a result of efforts to unify a divided England and settle disagreements over Church reforms. King James I approved a new translation in 1604 to reinforce his image as a political and spiritual leader, appointing 54 scholars to prepare the translation[5]. The completed King James Version was first published in 1611 and became a significant literary and religious work, although it took time to gain widespread acceptance[5][4]. While the King James Version has been replaced by more modern translations in some circles, it remains a standard of measure for new translations and is considered a masterpiece of the English language[5].

Sources
[1] PERSECUTION - King James Bible https://www.kingjamesbibleonline.org/Persecution.php4
[2] What Does the Bible Say about Persecution? https://stillfaith.com/topics/persecution/
[3] 14 Bible Verses about Persecution - KJV https://dailyverses.net/persecution/kjv
[4] King James Version (KJV) | Bible, History, & Background https://www.britannica.com/topic/King-James-Version
[5] King James: The Project https://digitalcommons.cedarville.edu/persecution_project/

By Perplexity at https://www.perplexity.ai/search/How-old-is-o8AElGtsSU6KCNxCaZAEeg"

And I am very happy to have the work of skilled, knowledgeable modern translators who have given us a choice of excellent Bibles that are the true Word of God!

I am not happy about it. I know that men have lost their souls making these translations because some of them did repent. I am not happy about it because these Modern Bibles have led people astray to believe false doctrines. Granted, I believe there is a silver lining in their existence. Despite the bad of the existence of Modern Bibles, God can still turn a bad thing around for good. I believe a person can use Modern Translations to help flesh out what the KJV says at times in its archaic wording. This is not to replace what the KJV says but to help clarify it at times. This is not always the case because as I said before, Modern Bibles do teach false doctrines.

 

[fredoheaven]

Are you okay??? Here is John 6:11 from the King James translation: "And Jesus took the loaves; and when he had given thanks, he distributed to the disciples, and the disciples to them that were set down; and likewise of the fishes as much as they would."

You should do more research before you post something which doesn't make sense. => The disciples distributed the food <=

I just thought, you already spotted the difference. Let’s see what the NET and the NIV say in John 6:11 in comparison. The KJB is clear but not the NET or the NIV. Did the the NET or the NIV say, Jesus distributed to the disciples in the gospel book of John? No! But the KJB is correct as always and consistent as it did not contradict itself with Matthew, Mark, and Luke's writing in giving their witnesses of Jesus distributing first to his disciples, then the disciples distribute the meals to the crowd.

Am I okay? Yes of course! Are you okay? I’ll answer it, not so.

New International Version
Jesus then took the loaves, gave thanks, and distributed to those who were seated as much as they wanted. He did the same with the fish.

NET

Then Jesus took the loaves, and when he had given thanks, he distributed the bread to those who were seated. He then did the same with the fish, as much as they wanted.

King James Bible
And Jesus took the loaves; and when he had given thanks, he distributed to the disciples, and the disciples to them that were set down; and likewise of the fishes as much as they would.

 

[fredoheaven]

There is zero evidence for Romans 8:1 adding the additional words. On the contrary: We have big hints and clues that Romans 8:1 would have been corrupted and such words would have actually been removed.

I have to agree that most corruption during the apostolic times was done by way of omitting the words rather than adding the words. As a simple demonstration found in John 6:11

 

[Medad]

Are you all forgetting about the false propets? None of you have presented the correct argument. Open your bibles to ezekiel 13:20. Note the message was changed from souls to birds regarding what the false prophets were teaching. Souls fly is what God is against not birds. The reason to use the kJv as the authoritive Bible is because it is An exact duplicate of the septuagint translated to english. The Septuagint is the oldest completed set of books of God's Word. Older than the Masoretic Text. Every word in the kjv is mapped back to the original hebrew and aramic as documented by James Strongs. All other english translations, except the Vulgate source from the KJV but change the terminology. This does not mean you cannot be saved , but it does mean you can be deceived.

 

[jamessb]

Oh, now I see.

About 615 years ago, God, who created the universe and sent His Son to redeem humanity, decided that He was going to move the tyrant King of England to produce the perfect Bible. He gave the translators appointed by the king, not only perfect source documents, but also perfect insight into the meaning of the languages AND the ability to translate them perfectly into Englyshe. Then, after the translation work was completed and the tyrant king gave his approval, God rested from His work.


Even though many devoted and gifted people have labored to produce Bibles in the years thereafter, and even though God allowed other source documents to be discovered that gave people greater insight and understanding of His messages to humanity, He, in His wisdom, prevented them from ever producing another perfect Bible! He rested from His work in 1611 and allowed Satan to deceive the many educated and gifted people since that time that have labored to continue His purpose in giving translations so that His children would have greater understanding of their heavenly Father and His love.


SOME PEOPLE ACTUALLY BELIEVE THAT!!! Even though there are gifted Christian men and women who have devoted much of their God-given time and energy to give us the wonderful translations IN OUR LANGUAGE that are available today, some people still believe that God rested from His work in 1611. It is beyond me how they can be so deceived!


I am asking people to use their God-given sense to decide which Bible translation is best for them. Don’t listen to self-appointed experts who tell you which Bible to use! Read different translations and decide for yourself!

 

[jamessb]

Are you all forgetting about the false propets? None of you have presented the correct argument. Open your bibles to ezekiel 13:20. Note the message was changed from souls to birds regarding what the false prophets were teaching. Souls fly is what God is against not birds. The reason to use the kJv as the authoritive Bible is because it is An exact duplicate of the septuagint translated to english. The Septuagint is the oldest completed set of books of God's Word. Older than the Masoretic Text. Every word in the kjv is mapped back to the original hebrew and aramic as documented by James Strongs. All other english translations, except the Vulgate source from the KJV but change the terminology. This does not mean you cannot be saved , but it does mean you can be deceived.

You can't be serious!

Every word in the kjv is NOT mapped back to the original hebrew and aramic (which should read the original Hebrew and Aramaic). And of course you have forgotten about Koine Greek, the source language of the New Testament (which is part of the Bible).

Read my post immediately above.

 

[jamessb]

I just thought, you already spotted the difference. Let’s see what the NET and the NIV say in John 6:11 in comparison. The KJB is clear but not the NET or the NIV. Did the the NET or the NIV say, Jesus distributed to the disciples in the gospel book of John? No! But the KJB is correct as always and consistent as it did not contradict itself with Matthew, Mark, and Luke's writing in giving their witnesses of Jesus distributing first to his disciples, then the disciples distribute the meals to the crowd.

Am I okay? Yes of course! Are you okay? I’ll answer it, not so.

New International Version
Jesus then took the loaves, gave thanks, and distributed to those who were seated as much as they wanted. He did the same with the fish.

NET

Then Jesus took the loaves, and when he had given thanks, he distributed the bread to those who were seated. He then did the same with the fish, as much as they wanted.

King James Bible
And Jesus took the loaves; and when he had given thanks, he distributed to the disciples, and the disciples to them that were set down; and likewise of the fishes as much as they would.

Aside from its being ridiculous to even discuss this... I don't know what version of the King James translation that you're using, but here is what the King James translation that I own says in John 6:11, "And Jesus took the loaves; and when he had given thanks, he distributed to the disciples, and the disciples to them that were set down; and likewise of the fishes as much as they would."

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Oh, now I see.

About 615 years ago, God, who created the universe and sent His Son to redeem humanity, decided that He was going to move the tyrant King of England to produce the perfect Bible.

You have bought into the lies, and or your own false thinking that King James was a tyrant king. Please do your homework on hearing the other side of the story about how he was regarded as a good king by his own people. I mean, seriously, if King James was a tyrant king, he would not have conceded to his people in making a translation.

He gave the translators appointed by the king, not only perfect source documents, but also perfect insight into the meaning of the languages AND the ability to translate them perfectly into Englyshe. Then, after the translation work was completed and the tyrant king gave his approval, God rested from His work.

So now you are just mocking. I believe there are many good reasons God did inspire the KJV. I mean, stop a moment. Consider the possibility that you could be wrong. What if God did inspire the King James Bible? You would be attacking God and His holy word. Would you not owe it to yourself to investigate the truth on this matter instead of latching on to lies instead of doing your own homework and seeing the other side of the story? But alas, I don't think you are going to do that at this point in your life, unless God of course intervenes to give you a wake up call and He shows you that the KJV is His book that you are attacking. I pray that God will do that, but everything happens in this life for a reason.

Even though many devoted and gifted people have labored to produce Bibles in the years thereafter, and even though God allowed other source documents to be discovered that gave people greater insight and understanding of His messages to humanity, He, in His wisdom, prevented them from ever producing another perfect Bible! He rested from His work in 1611 and allowed Satan to deceive the many educated and gifted people since that time that have labored to continue His purpose in giving translations so that His children would have greater understanding of their heavenly Father and His love.

God did not produce many Bibles (Which teach conflicting things). God is not the author of confusion. Satan also is at the heart of the Science of Textual Criticism. The goal of Textual Criticism is to question God's word, which is what Satan did with Eve back in the Garden. The footnotes is a prime example of this. You the reader get to decide if the ending of Mark should be in your Bible or not. Yea, hath God said....? (Genesis 3:1). Yea, did God really give us the ending in Mark? I believe He has, but in the world of Textual Criticism, it is okay to doubt God's words as you see fit. In Textual Criticims: The Bible is sort of like a pick and choose your own Adventure Book. Also, Satan has placed his name in Modern Bibles, as well.

SOME PEOPLE ACTUALLY BELIEVE THAT!!! Even though there are gifted Christian men and women who have devoted much of their God-given time and energy to give us the wonderful translations IN OUR LANGUAGE that are available today, some people still believe that God rested from His work in 1611. It is beyond me how they can be so deceived!

Modern Bibles are not wonderful translations because they teach false doctrines as I have demonstrated. You just brushed this point aside without any good reason or explanation other than appealing to Textual Critic mumbo jumbo.

I am asking people to use their God-given sense to decide which Bible translation is best for them. Don’t listen to self-appointed experts who tell you which Bible to use! Read different translations and decide for yourself!

Anyone who cares about truth would not compromise on accepting false doctrines taught in Modern Bibles. That’s the reality of the situation here.

 

[jamessb]

The Geneva Bible, a predecessor of the KJV, has John 6:11 as "And Iesus tooke the bread, & gaue thanks, & gaue to the disciples, and the disciples, to them that were set downe: and likewise of the fishes as much as they would." Why did your publisher decide to alter God's word/

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

You can't be serious!

Every word in the kjv is NOT mapped back to the original hebrew and aramic (which should read the original Hebrew and Aramaic). And of course you have forgotten about Koine Greek, the source language of the New Testament (which is part of the Bible).

Read my post immediately above.

Well, you wouldn’t know if this was the case or not because you were not there to see the originals unless you are claiming you have a time machine. You are taking it by faith in what the scholar says. But the difference between us is that I don’t trust the words of scholars, I trust what the Bible says, and the Bible teaches that His words are pure and that they will be preserved forever. The Bible teaches that the Word would be near us. The Bible teaches that the Scriptures cannot be broken and that the Word is incorruptible. The Bible teaches that His words are in a book. Isaiah 34:16 is a prophecy of the completed Bible because Isaiah 34 ties in with verses from Revelation (Which is still a future event to happen). 2 Timothy 3:15 says the Scriptures are holy, but Textual Critics believe they are full of errors. They don’t believe in any perfect Bible and so they become the standard ultimately on what God said and did not say among a sea of conflicting Bibles, etcetera. You have no standard or one Bible to trust. So you or the scholar sits in the seat of God and determines what God said ultimately.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Aside from its being ridiculous to even discuss this... I don't know what version of the King James translation that you're using, but here is what the King James translation that I own says in John 6:11, "And Jesus took the loaves; and when he had given thanks, he distributed to the disciples, and the disciples to them that were set down; and likewise of the fishes as much as they would."

There are only seven MAJOR KJB editions or slight updates and this was due to either printing errors, standardizing the English language, etcetera. Most KJB believers either use the authorized version by Blayney (1769) with the Apocrypha removed (1885), or they use the Pure Cambridge KJV Edition (circa 1900) (A.W. Pollard). These are the accepted final editions for the 1611 KJV. The differences are minor. But if you were to look at the changes between the different NIV editions or other Modern Bibles, the changes are very significant. The NIV changes Mark 4:1 in Jesus being compassionate when healing the leper, and yet the new NIV says he healed the leper while he was indignant (angry). So the change is for the worse, and not for the better. But in Textual Criticism, you just shut your brain off to these kinds of bad changes. It's like drinking a horrible and sour drink and claiming it is great tasting. Textual Criticism is for those who do not want a perfect Word of God to be under authority to.

Psalms 12:6 speaks prophetically of the seven KJV editions with the Pure Cambridge being the final and settled Word for today. Of course, not all KJV believers hold to this view, but there are some that do. There are other verses that speak to this, but I am sure this kind of thing would simply be rejected by those who are heavily into Textual Criticism.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

The Geneva Bible, a predecessor of the KJV, has John 6:11 as "And Iesus tooke the bread, & gaue thanks, & gaue to the disciples, and the disciples, to them that were set downe: and likewise of the fishes as much as they would." Why did your publisher decide to alter God's word/

There are errors in the Geneva Bible.

One prime example is that it has the same error as the Modern Bibles. In 2 Samuel 21:19, it says that Elhanan slew Goliath, when in reality we know David did that. In the King James Bible, it correctly says that Elhanan slew the BROTHER OF Goliath.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Aside from its being ridiculous to even discuss this... I don't know what version of the King James translation that you're using, but here is what the King James translation that I own says in John 6:11, "And Jesus took the loaves; and when he had given thanks, he distributed to the disciples, and the disciples to them that were set down; and likewise of the fishes as much as they would."

This is not really a strong point to debate in my humble opinion. While I would side with the KJV in what it says, there is no major doctrine affected if Jesus did in fact feed others directly. So this is not a hill one should die on in debating this kind of thing. I prefer sticking to major doctrinal changes that are heretical in Modern Bibles. But you do not appear to care about them. Your reasoning is flawed in this department. Are you ecumenical? Are you aware that the Modern Bibles are strongly ecumenical and they are tied to Unitarians and the Catholic Church? These are not baseless claims. I can actually prove my case with evidence.

 

[jamessb]

Apparently Bible_Highlighter has posted some information. I am glad that I am ignoring him. He has it fixed in his mind that there is apparently some conspiracy among modern Bible translators and publishers to distort the perfect Englyshe translation created by a group of men over 400 years ago -- for the only time in history! It would be laughable if it wasn't so tragic.

If others would care to objectively discuss bible translation, I would be happy to participate.

 

[fredoheaven]

Aside from its being ridiculous to even discuss this... I don't know what version of the King James translation that you're using, but here is what the King James translation that I own says in John 6:11, "And Jesus took the loaves; and when he had given thanks, he distributed to the disciples, and the disciples to them that were set down; and likewise of the fishes as much as they would."

You are now actually discussing things that sided with my peoposition which you didn't grasp at the beginning. The newer versions Net or nib did not tell you this which you try to promote and lambashed Kjb while the fact it has been consistent with the other eyewitnesses.

 

[fredoheaven]

The Geneva Bible, a predecessor of the KJV, has John 6:11 as "And Iesus tooke the bread, & gaue thanks, & gaue to the disciples, and the disciples, to them that were set downe: and likewise of the fishes as much as they would." Why did your publisher decide to alter God's word/

So you see now, you are going to Geneva, this time who may used based text that are similar to Kjb. The diffrence is that the net or niv compated to kjb and geneva is the omiision of the Greek word matethes or disciples. This kind of example is a corruption of the net or niv.

 

[jamessb]

So you see now, you are going to Geneva, this time who may used based text that are similar to Kjb. The diffrence is that the net or niv compated to kjb and geneva is the omiision of the Greek word matethes or disciples. This kind of example is a corruption of the net or niv.

LOL! You can't be serious!

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Apparently Bible_Highlighter has posted some information. I am glad that I am ignoring him. He has it fixed in his mind that there is apparently some conspiracy among modern Bible translators and publishers to distort the perfect Englyshe translation created by a group of men over 400 years ago -- for the only time in history! It would be laughable if it wasn't so tragic.

If others would care to objectively discuss bible translation, I would be happy to participate.

And there goes your fantastic imagination again. No, I don’t think the Modern Bible translators and Publishers are involved in a current conspiracy. It may have started out as a conspiracy with Westcott and Hort, and some scholars over the years may have employed major deception, but I don’t believe there is a massive conspiracy going on now. As I said before, the moving certain words from 1 John 5:8 to the missing spot for 1 John 5:7 is deception. The NKJV is a deception. I can prove it with evidence. The conspiracy that is going on is from the devil. He is the one who is moving men to question God’s words. That is a conspiracy going on now.

 

[fredoheaven]

This is not really a strong point to debate in my humble opinion. While I would side with the KJV in what it says, there is no major doctrine affected if Jesus did in fact feed others directly. So this is not a hill one should die on in debating this kind of thing. I prefer sticking to major doctrinal changes that are heretical in Modern Bibles. But you do not appear to care about them. Your reasoning is flawed in this department. Are you ecumenical? Are you aware that the Modern Bibles are strongly ecumenical and they are tied to Unitarians and the Catholic Church? These are not baseless claims. I can actually prove my case with evidence.

Yes, I agree, thats why i said in my earlier post that i am into a gnat straining. However, ridiculous at it may, some ignore honesty, that God's word dint tell a lie as the bible say, "...let God be true, but every man a liar...

 

[jamessb]

So you see now, you are going to Geneva, this time who may used based text that are similar to Kjb. The diffrence is that the net or niv compated to kjb and geneva is the omiision of the Greek word matethes or disciples. This kind of example is a corruption of the net or niv.

BTW, the Authorized King James Bible (the earliest KJV), has this translation of that verse: "And Jesus took the loaves; and when he had given thanks, he distributed to the disciples, and the disciples to them that were set down; and likewise of the fishes as much as they would." Why was it dropped from later King James Bibles?

By your logic, the the earliest King James Bible is corrupt!