The Error of KJV-Onlyism
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KJV - Errors
Deuteronomy 8:9 –
A land wherein thou shalt eat bread without scarceness, thou shalt not lack any thing in it; a land whose stones are iron, and out of whose hills thou mayest dig brass.
One cannot “dig brass” out of hills where it doesn’t exist. Other than an infinitesimal amount of mineral brass found in Siberia, brass is an alloy produced by man. One digs copper out of hills. 1 demerit.
The next is from Deuteronomy 33:17 –
The word “unicorns” is decidedly incorrect. First, there are no such things. But even if the old English word speaks of a rhino or something else with one horn, the Hebrew word is singular – “unicorn.” And so, no matter what, the translation is wrong because a unicorn has only one horn. Therefore, this is another of the innumerable errors found in the translation. It is just a ridiculously funny one.
contradiction in Scripture between Exodus and Hebrews –
Notice the difference between these three sets of verses from the KJV and the NKJV. To make it simple on you, the error is highlighted. Which version is in error and why? See if you can identify it and explain –
KJV:
According to all that I shew thee, after the pattern of the tabernacle, and the pattern of all the instruments thereof, even so shall ye make it. Exodus 25:9
“Who serve unto the example and shadow of heavenly things, as Moses was admonished of God when he was about to make the tabernacle: for, See, saith he, that thou make all things according to the pattern shewed to thee in the mount.” Hebrews 8:5
“It was therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens should be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.” Hebrews 9:23
NKJV:
“According to all that I show you, that is, the pattern of the tabernacle and the pattern of all its furnishings, just so you shall make it.” Exodus 25:9
“who serve the copy and shadow of the heavenly things, as Moses was divinely instructed when he was about to make the tabernacle. For He said, ‘See that you make all things according to the pattern shown you on the mountain.’” Hebrews 8:5
“Therefore it was necessary that the copies of the things in the heavens should be purified with these, but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.” Hebrews 9:23
Now that you have thought it through, you can see that the KJV botched up its translation of Hebrews 9:23, forming a contradiction in the text. The exact opposite of what the Bible says is what they have said. It the earthly things are COPIES of the heavenly things, which are the pattern.
By translating this as PATTERNS, they have brought error into their translation. You can place the blame for such a botched-up job right where it belongs, meaning with the human translators of God’s infallible word.
Deuteronomy 8:9 –
A land wherein thou shalt eat bread without scarceness, thou shalt not lack any thing in it; a land whose stones are iron, and out of whose hills thou mayest dig brass.
One cannot “dig brass” out of hills where it doesn’t exist. Other than an infinitesimal amount of mineral brass found in Siberia, brass is an alloy produced by man. One digs copper out of hills. 1 demerit.
The next is from Deuteronomy 33:17 –
The word “unicorns” is decidedly incorrect. First, there are no such things. But even if the old English word speaks of a rhino or something else with one horn, the Hebrew word is singular – “unicorn.” And so, no matter what, the translation is wrong because a unicorn has only one horn. Therefore, this is another of the innumerable errors found in the translation. It is just a ridiculously funny one.
contradiction in Scripture between Exodus and Hebrews –
Notice the difference between these three sets of verses from the KJV and the NKJV. To make it simple on you, the error is highlighted. Which version is in error and why? See if you can identify it and explain –
KJV:
According to all that I shew thee, after the pattern of the tabernacle, and the pattern of all the instruments thereof, even so shall ye make it. Exodus 25:9
“Who serve unto the example and shadow of heavenly things, as Moses was admonished of God when he was about to make the tabernacle: for, See, saith he, that thou make all things according to the pattern shewed to thee in the mount.” Hebrews 8:5
“It was therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens should be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.” Hebrews 9:23
NKJV:
“According to all that I show you, that is, the pattern of the tabernacle and the pattern of all its furnishings, just so you shall make it.” Exodus 25:9
“who serve the copy and shadow of the heavenly things, as Moses was divinely instructed when he was about to make the tabernacle. For He said, ‘See that you make all things according to the pattern shown you on the mountain.’” Hebrews 8:5
“Therefore it was necessary that the copies of the things in the heavens should be purified with these, but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.” Hebrews 9:23
Now that you have thought it through, you can see that the KJV botched up its translation of Hebrews 9:23, forming a contradiction in the text. The exact opposite of what the Bible says is what they have said. It the earthly things are COPIES of the heavenly things, which are the pattern.
By translating this as PATTERNS, they have brought error into their translation. You can place the blame for such a botched-up job right where it belongs, meaning with the human translators of God’s infallible word.
This is from you:
The KJB should have simply put Tartarus there in place of "hell". The King James translators indiscriminately used the word "hell" for (a) Sheol/Hades and (b) Tartarus, when it should have only been used for (c) Gehenna (the Lake of Fire). They also called "Sheol" "the grave" or "the pit" to add to the confusion. I use the KJB exclusively, and it is a shame to point out these things which have caused so much confusion.
Hardly minor even in your view when it causes so much confusion due to the lack of discrimination.
You even bolded the word mistake! But now you want to pretend there are no errors.
To a previous post of @Dino246 when the same error he just pointed out (post 685 above) was brought to our attention:
But KJ onlyists hate to acknowledge mistakes in the KJV.
Still you have the gall to say to others:
The mistake being claiming there are no errors in the KJB. You have a very serious problem!
The KJB should have simply put Tartarus there in place of "hell". The King James translators indiscriminately used the word "hell" for (a) Sheol/Hades and (b) Tartarus, when it should have only been used for (c) Gehenna (the Lake of Fire). They also called "Sheol" "the grave" or "the pit" to add to the confusion. I use the KJB exclusively, and it is a shame to point out these things which have caused so much confusion.
Hardly minor even in your view when it causes so much confusion due to the lack of discrimination.
You even bolded the word mistake! But now you want to pretend there are no errors.
To a previous post of @Dino246 when the same error he just pointed out (post 685 above) was brought to our attention:
But KJ onlyists hate to acknowledge mistakes in the KJV.
Still you have the gall to say to others:
The mistake being claiming there are no errors in the KJB. You have a very serious problem!
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The handwritten master copy of the KJB from the translators had never changed once it was finalized to be sent to the printer. If you knew anything about the printing process back in the old days before they perfected it, you would understand that printing errors was a common thing in many books (Especially larger ones like the Bible). It was a messy and difficult process that they could not master; Especially for larger works until one day the technology was perfected. Also, there were updates in spellings, and font changes, as well. But those are not changes to what the words say.
When Psalms 12:6 refers to the words of the Lord being purified seven times, I believe it is also prophetic.
My Proposed List of the Seven Purifications of the KJB:
I believe that God is in control even over the roll of the dice.
So any small differences between the MAJOR six editions (due to printing errors) could also potentially be true.
(Note: One purification was the removal of the Apocrypha in 1885 by the Church of England ).
We learn in Jeremiah that God can edit His own Word. When the King cut up and burned the scroll in the fire, God told Jeremiah to make another scroll and add many like words to it.
There are approximately 12 subtle or small differences between the 6 major KJB editions to my knowledge.
Granted, there are things that needed to be filtered out of the first KJB 1611 edition like the Apocrypha, the marginal notes, the Greek pagan pictures, and stuff. But the hand written master copy was the reflection of the true Word all along. I believe it was not until the Pure Cambridge Edition (circa 1900) when the printing process and standardization of spelling and grammar whereby we had a Word that was finally purified the seventh time.
Others like Matthew Verschuur at BibleProtector.com, and John M Asquith at PureCambridgeText.com have different lists.
Bible Protector’s List of the Seven Purifications in Psalms 12:6.
PureCambridgeText.com website offers a different list of the seven purified KJBs, and he offers some great reasons why, although I do not agree entirely with his list.
The changes to actual words and their meaning are very minute. But again, this was the fixing of printing errors when see that the words were different.
When Psalms 12:6 refers to the words of the Lord being purified seven times, I believe it is also prophetic.
My Proposed List of the Seven Purifications of the KJB:
- The 1629 Cambridge
- The 1638 Cambridge (authored by the King).
- The Paris 1762 Cambridge
- The Blayney 1769 Oxford (Authorized Version) (Today this is the 1893 or 1894 Oxford printed editions)
- Apocrypha Removed in KJB officially in 1885
- The Updated Public Based Pure Cambridge (used between the 1920s and 1985)
- The Pure Cambridge (A.W. Pollard) (circa 1914-1918) (WW2) (The KJV Cambridge used today).
I believe that God is in control even over the roll of the dice.
So any small differences between the MAJOR six editions (due to printing errors) could also potentially be true.
(Note: One purification was the removal of the Apocrypha in 1885 by the Church of England ).
We learn in Jeremiah that God can edit His own Word. When the King cut up and burned the scroll in the fire, God told Jeremiah to make another scroll and add many like words to it.
There are approximately 12 subtle or small differences between the 6 major KJB editions to my knowledge.
Granted, there are things that needed to be filtered out of the first KJB 1611 edition like the Apocrypha, the marginal notes, the Greek pagan pictures, and stuff. But the hand written master copy was the reflection of the true Word all along. I believe it was not until the Pure Cambridge Edition (circa 1900) when the printing process and standardization of spelling and grammar whereby we had a Word that was finally purified the seventh time.
Others like Matthew Verschuur at BibleProtector.com, and John M Asquith at PureCambridgeText.com have different lists.
Bible Protector’s List of the Seven Purifications in Psalms 12:6.
PureCambridgeText.com website offers a different list of the seven purified KJBs, and he offers some great reasons why, although I do not agree entirely with his list.
- The 1629 Cambridge
- The 1638 Cambridge (authored by the King).
- The Paris 1762 Cambridge
- The Blayney 1769 Oxford
- The Scrivener 1873 Cambridge Paragraph
- The Pure Cambridge (A.W. Pollard) (circa 1914-1918)
- The Updated Public Based Pure Cambridge (used between the 1920s and 1985).
The changes to actual words and their meaning are very minute. But again, this was the fixing of printing errors when see that the words were different.
I'm under no illusion that God is running a democracy. And I appreciate you taking the time to answer a few of my questions.
As to the first point, what you say concerning preservation may or may not be true. But I don't see how the verse given establishes it.
As far as the nation Israel goes, they definitely received the inspired word of God and were meticulous record keepers. So it's not hard to imagine preservation there.
There are still more questions if you are so inclined.
As to the first point, what you say concerning preservation may or may not be true. But I don't see how the verse given establishes it.
As far as the nation Israel goes, they definitely received the inspired word of God and were meticulous record keepers. So it's not hard to imagine preservation there.
There are still more questions if you are so inclined.
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As I already posted... the original greek word was passover in talking about after passover.
If the KJV translators were perfect people being led by the Holy Spirit as you guys apparently think, they would have simply said "Passover"
Trying to get me to believe that the KJV translators were perfect people who were incabable of making a single mistake and were anointed of God on the same level as the Apostles the Lord used to write the scriptures.
Thanks for thinking of me, but I'll pass since obviously none of this true and I'm not interesting in making idols out of the KJV translators!
If the KJV translators were perfect people being led by the Holy Spirit as you guys apparently think, they would have simply said "Passover"
Trying to get me to believe that the KJV translators were perfect people who were incabable of making a single mistake and were anointed of God on the same level as the Apostles the Lord used to write the scriptures.
Thanks for thinking of me, but I'll pass since obviously none of this true and I'm not interesting in making idols out of the KJV translators!
Easter is not a pagan word.
Per The Shorter Oxford Dictionary pp. 624, 1524.
Easter- a festival of Christian Church commemorating the resurrection of Christ, and corresponding to the Jewish Passover.
Passover- 1.The name of Jewish feast, held on the evening on the fourteenth day of the first month Nissan, commemorative to the ‘passing over’ of the houses of the Israelites when the Egyptians were smitten with the loss of their firstborn 2. contextually, the Paschal Lamb figuratively applied to Christ 1 Cor. 5:7
Basically, Easter is the same as Passover in a modern Greek, in the Dictionary, Easter is a commemorative event of the resurrection of our Lord Jesus. The event is the epitome of his death and his burial which Christ as the lamb of God became the Passover lamb, hence closely connected to the Passover event.
https://en.glosbe.com/en/el/Easter
https://en.glosbe.com/en/el/Passover
Timeline would date 1451BC for the Jewish Passover
https://amazingbibletimeline.com/blog/old-testament-timeline-passover/
Timeline would date 580BCE probably for the Eostre, but if you have the other timeline then I can change my gathered information.
https://www.sctimes.com/story/opini...and-cultural-appropriation-eostre/7317930001/
Timeline for the death of “Paschal/Passover Lamb”, the probable would be April 3, 33 AD a few hours before the beginning of Passover Day.
https://penelope.uchicago.edu/~grou...efore, on Friday,Passover day and the Sabbath.
So, the Jewish Passover is much celebrated long before what Bede said in his writings. Remember, the Hebrew Pesach always correspond to Christ so the celebration of Pascha is not unchristian as per Oxford and other Dictionary. And the Dictionaries are saying that Easter is the resurrection of Christ
The book of Acts was written probably 64-68 AD where the word Easter coined by William Tyndale in his New Testament (1525 ) who also later invented the English word “Passover”.
https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Passover#:~:text=Coined by William Tyndale (c,Hebrew פֶּסַח (pésach).
This is to note that William Tyndale is brilliant in a way he used the English word “Easter”/ “Ester” connected to the Jewish Passover and not association to pagan festival. He knows that the very sense is of the resurrection of Christ. Early English Dictionaries refers Easter is the resurrection of Christ. John Palsgrave, Conrad Gesner. Previous Dictionaries offer Pascha, pasca means Easter.
John Palsgrave, Lesclarcissement de la Langue Francoyse (1530)
Easter a hye feestla resurrection nostre seignevr s fe, pasques fe.
Conrad Gesner, Abecedarium Anglico-latinum (1552)
Resurrection of the Lord called Easter.
Thomas Elyot, The Dictionary of Sir Thomas Elyot (1538)
Pascha,Easter.
Thomas Elyot, Bibliotheca Eliotae (1542)
Pasca, Easter
Per The Shorter Oxford Dictionary pp. 624, 1524.
Easter- a festival of Christian Church commemorating the resurrection of Christ, and corresponding to the Jewish Passover.
Passover- 1.The name of Jewish feast, held on the evening on the fourteenth day of the first month Nissan, commemorative to the ‘passing over’ of the houses of the Israelites when the Egyptians were smitten with the loss of their firstborn 2. contextually, the Paschal Lamb figuratively applied to Christ 1 Cor. 5:7
Basically, Easter is the same as Passover in a modern Greek, in the Dictionary, Easter is a commemorative event of the resurrection of our Lord Jesus. The event is the epitome of his death and his burial which Christ as the lamb of God became the Passover lamb, hence closely connected to the Passover event.
https://en.glosbe.com/en/el/Easter
https://en.glosbe.com/en/el/Passover
Timeline would date 1451BC for the Jewish Passover
https://amazingbibletimeline.com/blog/old-testament-timeline-passover/
Timeline would date 580BCE probably for the Eostre, but if you have the other timeline then I can change my gathered information.
https://www.sctimes.com/story/opini...and-cultural-appropriation-eostre/7317930001/
Timeline for the death of “Paschal/Passover Lamb”, the probable would be April 3, 33 AD a few hours before the beginning of Passover Day.
https://penelope.uchicago.edu/~grou...efore, on Friday,Passover day and the Sabbath.
So, the Jewish Passover is much celebrated long before what Bede said in his writings. Remember, the Hebrew Pesach always correspond to Christ so the celebration of Pascha is not unchristian as per Oxford and other Dictionary. And the Dictionaries are saying that Easter is the resurrection of Christ
The book of Acts was written probably 64-68 AD where the word Easter coined by William Tyndale in his New Testament (1525 ) who also later invented the English word “Passover”.
https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Passover#:~:text=Coined by William Tyndale (c,Hebrew פֶּסַח (pésach).
This is to note that William Tyndale is brilliant in a way he used the English word “Easter”/ “Ester” connected to the Jewish Passover and not association to pagan festival. He knows that the very sense is of the resurrection of Christ. Early English Dictionaries refers Easter is the resurrection of Christ. John Palsgrave, Conrad Gesner. Previous Dictionaries offer Pascha, pasca means Easter.
John Palsgrave, Lesclarcissement de la Langue Francoyse (1530)
Easter a hye feestla resurrection nostre seignevr s fe, pasques fe.
Conrad Gesner, Abecedarium Anglico-latinum (1552)
Resurrection of the Lord called Easter.
Thomas Elyot, The Dictionary of Sir Thomas Elyot (1538)
Pascha,Easter.
Thomas Elyot, Bibliotheca Eliotae (1542)
Pasca, Easter
The original Greek is long gone, you have copies, so whose copy are you basing it off? The popes? And you can't speak orginal Greek, so who are you believing
That's why I showed you from scripture Passover has already finished, so it's up to you to figure out what Herod was celebrating as he wasn't a Jew and didn't like Christians, why would Herod even celebrate Passover? But it has already finished
I haven't mentioned the translators being perfect, and i haven't mentioned making an idol but I can get to that point, all I have done is to get you to see the very plain point that Passover has already passed so they can't be celebrating Passover, all I have dealt with is to try and get you to think and to try answer one question rationally
If the bible says Passover that would be an error, you would be having Passover after Passover, that would be an obvious error that you are pushing
That's why I showed you from scripture Passover has already finished, so it's up to you to figure out what Herod was celebrating as he wasn't a Jew and didn't like Christians, why would Herod even celebrate Passover? But it has already finished
I haven't mentioned the translators being perfect, and i haven't mentioned making an idol but I can get to that point, all I have done is to get you to see the very plain point that Passover has already passed so they can't be celebrating Passover, all I have dealt with is to try and get you to think and to try answer one question rationally
If the bible says Passover that would be an error, you would be having Passover after Passover, that would be an obvious error that you are pushing
The original coy of the KJV is long gone and it's not even the original text given by the Lord written thru His Apostles.
It does actually say passover
It does actually say passover
Why not go to the original meaning Hebrew meaning of Passover and stick with that, instead of reinventing the word through copied translations?
Again, the printing process was impossible to perfect before a certain point in time. The master copy was still perfect, and God was in control of the subtle differences due to the printing process not being perfect yet. The changes were minor and is not like the heretical changes in doctrine found in Modern Bibles. Jesus also grew in knowledge and wisdom (Which suggests change). That does not mean He was not perfect in everything He did His whole life. We can also see God moving in the standardization of these major different KJB editions, as well. Biblical numerics confirms these standardizations or updates. If you were to check out Brandon Peterson’s videos on biblical numerics, you would see what I am talking about.