The reactions of people here surprise me a bit . . . None of these texts clearly prove immersion. One would just as much say "came up out of the water" if John poured water on Jesus' head while he was kneeling in the Jordan.
I personally am very OK with using immersion for baptism, and that is probably even to me the preferred mode. However, I see no Scripture that proves immersion by any of the Biblical principles of interpretation.
Matthew 3:16, in the Bible, states:
"And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him."
This verse describes the baptism of Jesus by John the Baptist in the Jordan River. Jesus, who was sinless, submitted to baptism to fulfill all righteousness, as he said to John in Matthew 3:15.
The verse does not explicitly mention immersion, but the language used suggests that Jesus was completely submerged in the water. The word "baptized" comes from the Greek word "baptizo," which means to dip or immerse. The phrase "went up straightway out of the water" implies that Jesus had been fully submerged.
Furthermore, the context of the passage suggests that immersion was the norm for baptism in the early church. John the Baptist was baptizing people in the Jordan River, which would have required them to be fully submerged. The Acts of the Apostles also records several instances of people being baptized by immersion.
Therefore, while Matthew 3:16 does not explicitly state that Jesus was immersed, the language used and the context of the passage suggest that immersion was the most likely mode of baptism.
Here are some additional proofs that immersion was the norm for baptism in the early church:
* The Greek word "baptizo" is used over 100 times in the New Testament, and it always means to dip or immerse.
* The early church fathers, such as Justin Martyr and Tertullian, all wrote about immersion as the proper mode of baptism.
* The early Christian baptismal fonts were designed for immersion.
In conclusion, while Matthew 3:16 does not explicitly mention immersion, the language used and the context of the passage suggest that immersion was the most likely mode of baptism. This is supported by the consistent use of the word "baptizo" in the New Testament, the writings of the early church fathers, and the design of early Christian baptismal fonts.
The definition of the word baptized doesn't even indicate sprinkling or pouring. I personally believe it should always be done by immersion.