God's ONE Baptism For His Body!
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Clarify. The "cloven tongues LIKE as of fire" per Acts 2:3 sat upon each of the apostles. It's happened to them then, for a reason. Does that mean it happens to us now? Is this the baptism of fire John the Baptist spoke of when addressing the Sadducees and Pharisees, or was it the unquenchable fires as stated in Luke 3:17 or Matt 3:10 to which he inferred they would be thrown into?
There is only one Gospel.
Would you say Romans is "The Gospel of Grace"?
Most of "Romans" was written to the Jewish believers in the Roman Church (Ro 2:17 "You call yourself a Jew"; Ro 4:1 "Abraham our forefather according to the flesh"; Ro 7:1 "brothers (for I speak to those who know the Law)"--only at hiz greeting Ro 1 and then much later in Ro 11 does he addresses Gentiles).
Again, this was to confirm the Word--He baptizes in Spirit and Fire.
Not addressing this nonsense again, as the Bible prohibits foolish arguments.
Good. Don't address it. Just keep believing your own nonsensical illogical logic, taking scripture out of context as though it somehow applies to you today. Goodbye
This is why I respectfully suggest you’re looking at this with preconceived notions. When you say the “kingdom” and “grace” gospels, you’re already applying your filters. I strongly suggest let’s find some common ground by reading what the bible says without applying any of our filters.
When I said the beginning of the gospel, those are not my words they're God’s words.
Mark 1:1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God.
How can we go wrong by reading what the bible says and starting at the beginning of the gospel of Jesus?
I understand what you're saying but I was merely quoting the bible. When Jesus sent out the apostles, these were His instructions to them.
Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
Making disciples is different from making believers. One requires the ability to circumcise hearts; the other, the ability to teach.
The Church is one with Christ :
1. "Whoever receives the one I send receives Me."
2. "Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting Me?"
3. "Inasmuch as you did it to one of the least of my brothers you did it to Me."
4. "And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby: And he came and preached peace to you who were far off and peace to those who were near. "
"Christ" preached? It is Christ.
Can you help me to understand what Jesus meant by His instructions to the apostles when He sent them out to proclaim the gospel and "make disciples" baptizing them "in the name of".
They were tasked to share the gospel because faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. Those people who are converted by the gospel are to be baptized and taught the tenets of the faith. Teaching or instructing others the substance of the Bible is discipleship. Unfortunately, it is lacking in the church, as a whole, in our day.
I would love to discuss this but it's taking us away from the point of this thread. If you're passionate about this, maybe another thread?
Sure, that's fine.I would love to discuss this but it's taking us away from the point of this thread. If you're passionate about this, maybe another thread?
In Matthew 28:19 it says this
"19Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:"
In Acts 2:38 it says this
"38Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost."
So, which is it? Does scripture contradict scripture? The answer is NO. So, what's the deal?
What does "in the name of" really mean?
The fact is, when the phrase "In the name of is used" such as in the name of the king or queen, or in the name of the ??? anything, it really means by the authority of. So in the case of Matthew 28:19 it's saying by the authority of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost, since the actually names are either unknown, i.e., the name of the Holy Ghost, what is it?, or nebulous, such as in the name of God the Father, i.e., do you use Yaweh, I AM, Jehova, or ??? etc., And likewise in Acts 2:38, it's saying 'by the authority of Jesus Christ'. So, once a confession of belief is made, such as the Ethiopian eunuch did in Acts 8, it's immaterial. Either one is OK, or even none at all since the confession of belief in Jesus Christ is sufficient.
Precious friend, appreciate it. Would it be alright if I, while reading What The
Bible Says, apply these Bible study Rules, or would that also be considered as
my filters?
Appreciate the 'common ground' - I will be intrigued to find out how this will
apply to the 'topic' of this thread? I am humbly 'willing to learn,' so:
Please proceed...
Absolutely, I don't have any problems using good study rules and we should. I have filters too so don't let me break any rules or use any of my filters.
I don't have any problems looking at past baptisms but for now I would like to focus on baptisms that pertain to the gospel of Jesus. Mark tells us that the gospel began with John in the wilderness baptizing.
Mark 1:4 John appeared, baptizing in the wilderness and proclaiming a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins
We can see that this baptism was not for the forgiveness of sin but for repentance for the forgiveness of sins
It also is not in the name of Jesus.
After Jesus sacrifice, in the great commission, He sends the apostles out to proclaim the gospel and make disciples baptizing the believers in the name of Jesus.
Matthew 28:19 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
Mark 16:16 Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.
Can we agree on this? If not, please explain.
Agree:
"John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the
baptism of repentance for the remission of sins." (Mark 1:4)
Respectfully disagree, as I cannot 'change' God's Words to my own inter-
pretation (as I struggled with other's preconceptions trying to teach this
to me in my 'baby' years), and also because of:
God's Further Words of Confirmation:
"He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but
he that believeth not shall be damned." (Mark 16:16)
+"And all the people that heard him, and the publicans,
justified God, being baptized with the baptism of John.
But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of
God against themselves, being not baptized of him."
(Luke 7:29-30)
Am I being too prayerful / Careful with Application of Bible study Rule # 3? Amen.
Precious friend, what think ye?
Could you please explain with a little more detail. I'm not sure what point you are making.