Only Matt 24 uses the words "end of the world" or age and somewhat seems to infer both the destruction of the temple and the end of the world/age are in the same time frame or a continuation of the same event. Neither Mark nor Luke read this way nor state or infer this as the case.
To obtain the best "picture" of the Olivet Discourse, all three accounts need to be examined together.
I made this chart/table to make it easy to do just exactly that:
http://mywebsite.us/BibleStudy/Olivet_Discourse.html
Please look at it and tell me if it makes sense to you.
Also be sure to look at the 'Chronological Order' chart/table below the main one.
And in terms of the great tribulation itself, read the history of the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD and you will clearly see this to be that event described, and not some other futuristic event that has not yet occurred.
I clearly see a whole spectrum of 'events' over a span of ~2000 years - and not some collection of 'events' in a short period of time - past or future.
The 'great tribulation' that Jesus spoke of has a 'beginning' and an 'ending'. I clearly see the 'beginning' - I do not see the 'ending'. Therefore, let me ask again...
What about all of the things that happen 'Immediately after the tribulation of those days'...? (and after that)
Matthew 24:29-31 / Mark 13:24-27 / Luke 21:25-27
Are you saying that all of it has already occurred?
For the 'great tribulation' that Jesus spoke of to have come-and-gone circa 70 A.D., both the 'beginning' and 'ending' - and, all-in-between - would have to have occurred circa 70 A.D.
In our history - compared to scripture - I only see the 'beginning' of the 'great tribulation'.
So - when did those 'Immediately after the tribulation of those days' things occur?
Because, if they did not occur circa 70 A.D., then -
the 'great tribulation' started circa 70 A.D. and has not reached its end yet.
I have no doubt whatsoever that it did indeed start circa 70 A.D. - that is exceedingly clear in scripture.
That is why I say that we are
in it now - and that - it will end at some point in our future.
Jesus response as recorded appears to also weave in and out of the two events (destruction of the temple and events of his second coming).
Yes - the time frame does jump around a bit; however, it is not a back-and-forth
between the two events you mention here. The 'general' time frame moves forward from the time of the Olivet Discourse until the Second Coming of Christ. The events of circa 70 A.D. are included/mentioned.
(Again - take a look at both the main chart/table and the 'Chronological Order' chart/table on the web page linked to above.)
And only in Matt are the words "immediately after" used.
That does not change anything - all three accounts have to be taken together.