Rapture, if one holds to that or the soon return of the Lord, both do NOT know the day or our. No Person can tell us Jesus is coming in a year. that is Arrogance
So (regarding His Second Coming to the earth point in time), you don't see any of the following passages as pertaining to its arrival?:
--
"BLESSED is he that waiteth and cometh to the 1335 days" Dan12:12 (corresponding with about 7-8 other "BLESSED" passages speaking to this same circumstances / setting, i.e. His Second Coming
to the earth FOR the promised and prophesied
EARTHLY MK age--like the "BLESSED" in
Rev19:9/16:15 [Armageddon time-slot]; like the "BLESSED" in
Lk12:36-37,38,40,42-44 [and parallel] "when he will
RETURN FROM the wedding"...
THEN "the meal [G347]"; etc etc); Is there not a specific reference to "day-amounts" that those IN that time-period (the "lead up" to His RETURN) can understand and "count"--otherwise, what is the purpose of its saying "BLESSED is
he that waiteth AND COMETH TO the 1335 DAYS,"
if no one can "grasp" the MEANING of it, ever??;
--
in Daniel 12:1,6-7[,10] where the question is being asked "
HOW LONG TO the END of these wonders?" and a very specific
time-amount is supplied in the response (and Daniel is then told he will "[rest (in death) and] STAND IN THY LOT [be resurrected ('to stand again'
on the earth]
at the END OF THE DAYS" (at the END of
the "days" being referenced IN THAT CONTEXT; i.e. at the END of the TRIB yrs), and the passage stating that "the WISE WILL understand" (at that future time), are you thinking that
the very specific time-amount [supplied there in that text] can be "understood" BY NO ONE...
it's just put there in the text for no apparent PURPOSE?;
--
in Rev12:6,14 (likewise), and
in Daniel 7:25[,27], these both ALSO supply "day-amounts/time-amounts" (connected to the period when the AC will be present on the earth in his role) as do both
Rev11:2 and Rev13:5-7... are you suggesting
no one will be able to "grasp" the meaning of these
time-periods so named (when they are IN THEM)? And if NOT, then what do you see as their purpose for being WRITTEN IN THE TEXTS as they are? Wasting space? (just asking = ) )
[there are numerous other time-stamps, timing-indicators, etc, included in the texts, providing way more information on that Subject than many recognize (some of them being more readily detected than others
upon cursory glance, it must be admitted)... these few ^ above are only a small portion of many more... But "Revelation" itself is like a "mapped-out CALENDAR" (the "skeleton-OUTLINE" [time-wise / calendar-wise] can be detected)...
Rev1:1 itself states, "[TO SHOW UNTO...]...
things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" (the "future" aspects [
i.e. from 4:1+ ("SHOW")] NOT being things which would unfold over the course of some near-2000 years, as the Historicists [and others] suggest, for example)]
You're saying that
no one will be ABLE to factor
ANY of the "7 yr" countdown (nor the "3.5 yr" countdown from the AOD point in the chronology, when they find themselves
IN THOSE YRS)?? You're one of the few I've met to say that. = ) Just sayin'. lol
[again,
"KNOWETH" is in the "
PERFECT indicative"... and "PERFECT tense" only remains in effect UNTIL *further information* has UPDATED THAT STATUS (so to speak), which is what I'm saying JESUS DID
some 60+ years later, when the "Revelation" was written, 95ad... where the text itself is plotted out like a calendar, various day-amounts are supplied, time-stamps are indicated, etc etc...; The text in Matt24:36 ("knoweth [PERFECT indicative]") does NOT carry the meaning of "no one can EVER know" nor "no one WILL EVER know"... it just doesn't...]