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What law states that turning water into wine is a sin? Hard to say if that amount of alcohol would get everyone drunk as it would depend upon the number of guests, and the length of time to consume it. The feast may have been over a period of days and not hours.People try to say that Jesus made water into fermented wine, but that is utter blasphemy. Six water pots of stone would have been about 72 to 162 gallons of wine, which would have got everyone drunk that was there. If this wine was fermented then Jesus broke the law and was a sinner. We know this is not so because our Lord is sinless and that Jesus made new wine, which is grape juice.
If you consider the study I cover those details and give estimates on known marriage feasts length of time, and population of the time, etc. You just might be shocked at the amount per person even after their previous "wine" ran out.What law states that turning water into wine is a sin? Hard to say if that amount of alcohol would get everyone drunk as it would depend upon the number of guests, and the length of time to consume it. The feast may have been over a period of days and not hours.
Consider the question carefully.Would alcohol be "good fruit" or "corrupt fruit"?
Alcoholic "wine" is used as a symbol for sin and death in scripture.What law states that turning water into wine is a sin?
A non scriptural source that carries it's inherent bias?John 2:9 (KJV)
[9] When the ruler of the feast had tasted the water that was made wineG3631, and knew not whence it was: (but the servants which drew the water knew) the governor of the feast called the bridegroom,
wineG3631-3631. οἰ̃νος oínos; gen. oínou, masc. noun. Wine derived from grapes. The mention of the bursting of the wine skins in Mt 9:17; Mk 2:22; Lk 5:37,38 implies fermentation. See Lk 1:15; 7:33; 10:34; Ro 14:21; Ep 5:18 [cf. Jn 2:3,9,10; 4:46]; 1Ti 3:8; 5:23; Tit 2:3; Rev 6:6; 18:13; Sept.: Ge 9:21,24; 14:18; 27:28; Jdg 9:13. From the intoxicating effects of wine and the idolatrous use of it among the heathen, wine signifies communion in the intoxicating idolatries of the mystic Babylon (Rev 14:8 [cf. Je 51:7]). It denotes metaphorically the dreadful judgments of God upon sinners (Rev 14:10; 16:19; 19:15 [cf. Isa 51:17; Je 25:15; Eze 23:31]). The drinking of wine, though not forbidden by Scripture (as is drunkenness [Ep 5:18]), is to be avoided in the presence of weaker brothers who might be influenced to partake against their consciences (Ro 14:21). In 1Ti 5:23 oínos is recommended for medicinal purposes.
I posted the original Koine Greek word that is used in this instance. If you have no formal training in the original languages and cannot see the context, then I can see how you might reject what is posted. Spiros Zodhiates was considered a serious Greek Scholar by most teachers, before your time.A non scriptural source that carries it's inherent bias?
I'll trade you one non scriptural source for another -
"Oinos
(Noun) wine that is either fermented or unfermented (Depends on the context)
(Noun) Wine that is not fermented " - https://www.definition-of.com/Oinos
If you do not care for that source simply out of biased preference because it is clearly against an erroneous a priori, try these other scholarly non scriptural sources (how many do you need) - https://www.lavistachurchofchrist.org/LVanswers/2008/04-10b.html
No, what you did was cite S.Z. without giving credit to the original source in the original reply, and that was simply a Strong's Concordance number of the root word. The actual spelling in John 2:9 koine Greek "οἶνον". I did also provide several non scriptural Greek authorities that refute Calvinist S.Z. Why reject my sources for your one source? They're all not Bible. I actually get my definition of "wine" from scripture, not non scriptural sources.I posted the original Koine Greek word that is used in this instance.
I’m afraid your reading comprehension is on par with your interpretation.No, what you did was cite S.Z. without giving credit to the original source in the original reply, and that was simply a Strong's Concordance number of the root word. The actual spelling in John 2:9 koine Greek "οἶνον". I did also provide several non scriptural Greek authorities that refute Calvinist S.Z. Why reject my sources for your one source? They're all not Bible. I actually get my definition of "wine" from scripture, not non scriptural sources.
As for the latter part of your comments they assume something of me, which is merely Ad Hominem. Unworthy of my time. Why not instead deal with the research I provide at least twice now, which is more than adequate to overthrow S.Z. and your koine Greek and Hebrew and even English language knowledge.
Deut. 7:13 so called lxx - καὶ ἀγαπήσει σε καὶ εὐλογήσει σε καὶ πληθυνεῖ σε καὶ εὐλογήσει τὰ ἔκγονα τῆς κοιλίας σου καὶ τὸν καρπὸν τῆς γῆς σου τὸν σῖτόν σου καὶ τὸν οἶνόν σου καὶ τὸ ἔλαιόν σου τὰ βουκόλια τῶν βοῶν σου καὶ τὰ ποίμνια τῶν προβάτων σου ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἧς ὤμοσεν κύριος τοῖς πατράσιν σου δοῦναί σοιI’m afraid your reading comprehension is on par with your interpretation.
Deut. 7:13 so called lxx - καὶ ἀγαπήσει σε καὶ εὐλογήσει σε καὶ πληθυνεῖ σε καὶ εὐλογήσει τὰ ἔκγονα τῆς κοιλίας σου καὶ τὸν καρπὸν τῆς γῆς σου τὸν σῖτόν σου καὶ τὸν οἶνόν σου καὶ τὸ ἔλαιόν σου τὰ βουκόλια τῶν βοῶν σου καὶ τὰ ποίμνια τῶν προβάτων σου ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἧς ὤμοσεν κύριος τοῖς πατράσιν σου δοῦναί σοι
Deut. 7:13 KJB - "And he will love thee, and bless thee, and multiply thee: he will also bless the fruit of thy womb, and the fruit of thy land, thy corn, and thy wine, and thine oil, the increase of thy kine, and the flocks of thy sheep, in the land which he sware unto thy fathers to give thee."
"wine" - οἶνόν, all in the context of first fruits, of womb, and of the land. Nothing to do with alcohol, but rather the fresh juice of the grape harvest, the juice of the vine.
Deu 11:14: "That I will give you the rain of your land in his due season, the first rain and the latter rain, that thou mayest gather in thy corn, and thy wine, and thine oil."
Notice that the "wine" was to be "gather(ed) in" along with "corn" (grain) and "oil" (olive harvest). Nothing about fermentation, corruption, distilling, etc. Fresh harvest food.
Deu 12:17: "Thou mayest not eat within thy gates the tithe of thy corn, or of thy wine, or of thy oil, or the firstlings of thy herds or of thy flock, nor any of thy vows which thou vowest, nor thy freewill offerings, or heave offering of thine hand:"
Tithe, is the first fruits. Numerous more examples may be provided as needful.
I will hazard a guess and say that it is very good fruit.Would alcohol be "good fruit" or "corrupt fruit"?
When scripture is properly interpreted, in its particular context, one must put outside prejudice and personal bias. It is fruitless to wrest scripture in order to suit one's personal narrative of what they may want to believe is actually true. I fully concur with your estimation.Look, you are convinced it was grape juice (unfermented), I am convinced it was fermented juice of the highest quality. This word for wine is properly interpreted by its context. You clearly view the “Overseer” of the wedding party as too drunk to know the difference between fresh grape juice and wine when he declares it as “superior” to the wine that was furnished to guests prior.
I understand modern day objections to alcohol and what it can do when people drink to excess. I have seen it personally and many would do well to never drink. But, we are tasked to correctly interpret Scripture, in order to learn what is being taught. When emotions and human reasoning supplants strait-forward interpretation, then the correct lesson is not gained, and a human construct takes it’s place. That is where we are today in Bible literacy, unfortunately.