You really should do your homework before you embarrass yourself.
Jesus could not give donated money to the poor and consider it a "tithe". Firstly, the tithe was not payable on donated money (if you think it is, find it in the Law!); and secondly, the tithe was to be given to the Levites, who would then give it to the poor.
Aside from being inconsistent with Scripture, your assertion is entirely speculative and has absolutely no evidentiary value.
Gen. 14:19-20
"And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth:
And blessed be the most high God, which hath delivered thine enemies into thy hand. And he gave him tithes of all."
Melchizedek was a type of Christ and Abraham gave a tithe (a tenth) of all that he had.
The purpose of the tithe in the Law was to feed and care for the poor. This was done by animal sacrifices, along with grain and drink sacrifices. This is the principle of Malachi.
By the time Jesus came the temple was completely corrupted and polluted. The religious leaders had appointed money-changers that were no doubt cheating people through the exchange of money and animals for sacrifice. The true meaning of the tithe was lost. They were not paying tithes themselves, only in part.
Jesus gave back that meaning by helping the poor, as the Church is to do from the tithes we pay. This is the principle that Christ taught.
As I said before as to this being a tithe, I don't know. I have no proof this could be called a tithe.