IMO your questions are not addressing the real issue. The real question is, 'does what people practice today called tongues the same thing as what was done in the NT?' Would you agree with this?
A.) If what is done today is not the same thing as Acts 2, then it is not from God.
B.) The only one I know of doesn't directly say, but has an implication: Heb. 2:4. Since the writer of Hebrews excludes himself from "those who heard," he excludes himself from performing signs and wonders, and ultimately the gift of tongues. Since he also says "those who heard" (directly and literally from Jesus), the implication is that ONLY those people performed those signs. So, by implication, when those people died, it is reasonable to assume that the miraculous gifts died with them.
It's not saying that all miracles ceased, but that those gifts of miracles ceased, which a person had to exercise at his discretion. Gifts given to individuals permanently, not just a one-time event. After all, isn't this the assumption about tongues today? "I have the gift of tongues" means that person has been given a permanent gift to exercise at his own discretion. Do you agree with this?
But then there is the problem of the Corinthian church. Is there any indication that the gifts, including tongues, was given to many individuals? Was it really so prolific as Charismatics claim? Does the scripture anywhere imply it?