If I read correctly, I think what he is saying is that it's possible to test the plausibility of a pre-trib rapture by cross-examining it within the context of the pass of 2 Thess. 2.
If apostasia means a departure (rapture) of the church then the way the sentence reads would literally be something like "the departure will not occur until the departure occurs." This adds nothing of value to Paul's thesis, is redundant, and creates a contradiction later in the chapter.
If apostasia means a departure (rapture) of the church then the way the sentence reads would literally be something like "the departure will not occur until the departure occurs." This adds nothing of value to Paul's thesis, is redundant, and creates a contradiction later in the chapter.
IOW, it is YOU who is being "redundant," because the sentence would not read as you suggest it would (if one merely replaces the word "apostasia" [used ONE TIME here!] with the word "rapture [/departure]"--you are not doing that).
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I recall I addressed the same OP video awhile back, and I had noticed then that the video contains this same "misapplication" (doubling the word "rapture" in verse 3, instead of simply replacing "apostasia" with the word "rapture [/departure], in order to make it SEEM completely "nonsensical," but is not at all accurate to the way it is actually being presented--WHY??)
The OP video is the same video (Post #390 just prior to the posts at the following links) I responded to in a different thread, back in December:
Post #391 - https://christianchat.com/threads/t...lessed-hope-of-the-saints.195611/post-4448305
Post #392 - https://christianchat.com/threads/t...lessed-hope-of-the-saints.195611/post-4448308
[...also in further posts in that thread... including Post #563 (page 29)...]