Which verse(s)?:
Disagree, the "acts of the apostles {including
Transition}" Was
the obedience to the
command Instituted in the OT!:
(A) the "NT" is a man-made
label INSERTED into
The Bible; John the
baptizer, and CHRIST were both born, Under The LAW {OT}:
Gal_4:4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth
His SON, made of a woman, made under the law
(B) Had to be instituted before Acts, and Before CHRIST was water baptized?
(C) Was it instituted with John the baptizer? Or, before?
Partial "study" from
12 baptisms:
(ONE of Israel's various
washings! Greek: Baptismos = Hebrews 9:10):
4. Levitical priesthood baptism (Exodus 29:4;
Leviticus 8:6; Numbers 8:7!). This washing was The Second
Requirement {The First being: "NO blemish!" (Leviticus 21:21!)},
in order
to become a priest under the Law of Moses!
Is this baptism in any way
connected To baptism # 9?
--------------------
9. "water" baptism of repentance that John preached (Before
The Cross),
And Peter
continued (After
The Cross!), to preach!
(Matthew 3:5-6; Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3; John 1:31; Luke 7:29-30;
Acts 10:37; Matthew 28:19; Mark 16:16; Acts 2:38; Acts 22:16;
Ezekiel 36:25).
a) Does this baptism “save” anyone (Luke 7:29-30?)?
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b1) Is this baptism in any way "connected" to baptism # 4?
b2) Wasn't John
preparing National Israel for God's Promise For
them “to be a
nation of priests unto God" (Exodus 19:6!)?
b3) Was not The Second Requirement for
priesthood induction,
Washing? { may require re-review of baptism #4! }.
b4) Did not CHRIST And The Twelve “heal” everyone in Israel who came to
them, in order to meet “The FIRST Requirement” For the priesthood, that
Of "NO blemish!”? (Matthew 4:24; Acts 5:16 cp Leviticus 21:21!).
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c) Is this baptism “for today”? IF this baptism is FOR US Today, we have
Several More Questions:
c1) Why does NO ONE Today, “teach,” as “John ( Under The LAW! ),
Claimed: it is FOR “making CHRIST Manifest To Israel” (John 1:31!)?
c2) Why does {Almost} NO ONE Today, “Confess their sins,”
when they come to This baptism (Matthew 3:6; Mark 1:5!)?
c3) Why do not ALL
Divided “denominations who WATER baptize” today,
agree AS ONE, And “teach” water as John, CHRIST, And The
Twelve ( Under The LAW! ), “taught” That “water baptism Is FOR The
Remission Of sins!” (Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3; Acts 2:38!).
{ instead of each one’s own “
symbolic Re-Interpreted Traditions!” }? -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Baptism Of Anointing?:
10. Pentecostal Spirit baptism
This is the baptism
"WITH" The Holy Spirit, BY JESUS CHRIST,ou
From Heaven, Poured Out Upon the believing remnant of Israel with
signs and powers following. (Isaiah 44:3; Matthew 3:11; Mark 1:8, 16:17-18;
Luke 24:49; Acts 2:17-18, 38; Acts 8:15-17; Acts 11:16).
And, is not THIS The THIRD Requirement For
"priesthood induction" =
Anointing? (compare Exodus 29:7; Leviticus 8:10-12).
Is God
Performing "This" Baptism On us TODAY?
------------------------
Conclusion: IF you, precious friend,
believe you have been
water baptized
into the
Israeli priesthood, Are you Absolutely SURE you Have MET The other
TWO Requirements Of God? IF you haven't, then does this apply TODAY?:
God Superseded TWO baptisms, Under Law,
With ONE Baptism , Under GRACE!
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Please Be
Richly Encouraged, Enlightened, Exhorted, and Edified!
God's Simple Will!