Again, the first SEVEN English translations,
before the kjv existed, translated it either as "[a] departing" (noun) or "departure"... here's just one of those:
Geneva Bible of 1587 -
"Let no man deceiue you by any meanes: for that day shall not come, except there come
a departing first, and that that man of sinne be disclosed, euen the sonne of perdition,"
I was taught this fact by my pastor way back in the 70s, that this was the case (about "versions"
prior to the kjv, saying this ^ ).
I'm uncertain what other point you are making here. Are you suggesting that
only the "post-tribbers" have provided Greek scholars' work, and that the "pre-tribbers" are simply "making stuff up" off the top of our heads in order to cling to our (supposedly) deluded ideas of "pre-trib"??
(btw, I do disagree with a great deal of "Abs' unique viewpoints," just to be clear
)
How do you explain that [7] English translations
PRIOR to the kjv's existence, translated the word as "[a] departing" or "departure" (if we supposedly "made up" such an idea so it would "fit" our "narrative")? Is this what you are suggesting, or what? I don't get it.