The text does not state: "is at hand"... instead, the text states "IS PRESENT [
PERFECT indicative; G1764 -
enestēken -
https://biblehub.com/text/2_thessalonians/2-2.htm ]"... then note what the "PERFECT indicative" ("PERFECT tense") means... it doesn't mean that it is something that is UPCOMING (ahead) and soon-but-yet-to-occur, no.
The words you supplied are not in the text. I'm supplying the words which ARE in the text.
And that is just the START of our going over this text.
They
do mean what they say.
The issue is, they do not say what you've presented them to be saying (and I'm just talking, here, about the one phrase thus far).
This is the case with quite a few of the phrases in this context: either they actually SAY something different, or in another place are DEFINED differently than how it's "commonly defined"
out there (instead of the "biblical" definition of such-and-such--Example: the "Amill-teaching's" definition of "the day of the Lord" is "off"/
not accurate [which, MANY OTHERS simply "repeat as true"]... so there we get to the
next point in what Paul is actually conveying here.)
So, for [one of] the first question / fill-in-the-blanks, you get a "failing grade," so to speak
Try again. We all have to do this, so you're not alone. = )