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Romans 8:14KJVDon't apply this meaning from the NT to the way the phrase was used in the old.
Think for a moment. Is the scripture in the old talking about individuals led by the Spirit of God?
Well gosh gee whiz no it is not.![]()
Job 38:4-7 Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding. Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest? or who hath stretched the line upon it? Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened? or who laid the corner stone thereof; When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?Romans 8:14KJV
14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.
Romans 8:14KJV
14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.
Exodus 31:3KJV
3 And I have filled him with the spirit of God, in wisdom, and in understanding, and in knowledge, and in all manner of workmanship,
1 Samuel 10:10KJV
10 And when they came thither to the hill, behold, a company of prophets met him; and the Spirit of God came upon him, and he prophesied among them.
2 Chronicles 15:1KJV
And the Spirit of God came upon Azariah the son of Oded:
2 Chronicles 24:20KJV
20 And the Spirit of God came upon Zechariah the son of Jehoiada the priest, which stood above the people, and said unto them, Thus saith God, Why transgress ye the commandments of the Lord, that ye cannot prosper? because ye have forsaken the Lord, he hath also forsaken you.
Job 38:4-7 Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding. Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest? or who hath stretched the line upon it? Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened? or who laid the corner stone thereof; When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?
God's words state otherwise.Good one Dino! This is a good point, as it is demonstrating again that 'the sons of God' is referring to angelic hosts.
You are being stubborn and ridiculous. I quoted God's words verbatim. It is quite silly to ignore completely a relevant passage because it doesn't line up with your understanding. Rather, change your understanding to conform to God's words!God's words state otherwise.
You are being stubborn and ridiculous. I quoted God's words verbatim. It is quite silly to ignore completely a relevant passage because it doesn't line up with your understanding. Rather, change your understanding to conform to God's words!
As I have said before I think that these type threads are fascinating to me because they never follow groups of supporters or non-supporters aligned by the position they hold in eschatology.
this is not about angels having sex again, is it? LOl because Job 38:4-7 has no context to Genesis chapter six.Job 38:4-7 Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding. Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest? or who hath stretched the line upon it? Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened? or who laid the corner stone thereof; When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?
Agreed about context!this is not about angels having sex again, is it? LOl because Job 38:4-7 has no context to Genesis chapter six.
When the difference between views simply comes down to refusal [to acknowledge] there's no alliance with what is opinionated to what we read from the Word of God, the debate is over. It's reasonably possible to assume at that point, the opinionated view refuses to accept truth and logic. No need to continue and waste time, because [that's the intention] of the opposing view all along.
Agreed about context!
But still intrigued by the view from the Torah's [specific] use of Nobles (in place of Sons of God) in Genesis 6.
יחיד = "Nobles" is the translation of the Hebrew cherem [Herem or cherem (Hebrew: חרם, ḥērem)] (occurring only in the plural) = Herem or cherem (Hebrew: חרם, ḥērem), as used in the Tanakh, means 'devote' or 'destroy' in an act of war.
Ultimately, the use of Nobles [specifically Cherem] here in Genesis 6 is to [SIGNIFY] an Act of War.
The Ancient Hebrew [יחיד] wants us to view this as War from the Fallen Sons of God (Job gives 3 examples) upon God Himself by trying to [Destroy God's Creation of Humanity]. This WAR ended with the Flood of Noah!
2 Peter 2 explains the conditions of the [sinful Earth], (before the LAW), including examples of Sodom, and sexual perversions, lusting after [STRANGE flesh (Angel with human)], and the Disobedience by those Angels still chained in a Darkness you can feel engulfed all around you like it's touching you until the Day of judgement!
If we understand that the Fallen Angels created the Act of War by breeding Giants to be demonic and destroy God's Creation, we understand why [After] the Flood from the lineage of Ham, we see God ordering Joshua to destroy the enemy-their possessions-everything-make it completely disappear, we see the Kingdom of Israel [Saul] is commanded to utterly destroy certain enemies like Amalekites. This is all remnant of that Act of War.
Actually, it does, though not directly. It clearly identifies the "sons of God" as non-human entities in this case, which means that the "sons of God" in Genesis 6 aren't necessarily humans, which is the point trutht7 is trying to establish. Job 38 utterly disproves the idea that "sons of God" can only mean "humans".this is not about angels having sex again, is it? LOl because Job 38:4-7 has no context to Genesis chapter six.
You are assuming rather than concluding.The problem with this understanding is it is not supported by the word of God.
You do not take what was said in Job and scribe it as parallel to Genesis 6 when it is not.
Elohim has many meanings gods, angels, and in some cases like gen 6 men.
The problem with this understanding is it is not supported by the word of God.
You do not take what was said in Job and scribe it as parallel to Genesis 6 when it is not.
Elohim has many meanings gods, angels, and in some cases like gen 6 men.
Actually, it does, though not directly. It clearly identifies the "sons of God" as non-human entities in this case, which means that the "sons of God" in Genesis 6 aren't necessarily humans, which is the point trutht7 is trying to establish. Job 38 utterly disproves the idea that "sons of God" can only mean "humans".
no, actually I have read Genesis chapters 5-7.You are assuming rather than concluding.
Agreed, but the term Son's of God is only [used] four (4) times in the Old Testament. Once in Genesis and 3 times in Job. The three (3) in Job are more obvious. But we can also add that both Job and Genesis are written by [SAME] writer Moses. Maybe there's a connection there.