Seems to me you are at best in giving an opinion. Your definition of phileo is completely false confined to a familial, group, race or nation. Others calls them “brotherhood”. Since we are into a Bible Discussion, I fail to see any backing/ scriptural support of your statement- considered as circular argument with zero evidence. The discussion seeks to clarify your “two COMPLETELY… with different meanings”. My proposal is that they are used interchangeably with “agape” as you and others saying it is the love of God as seen in Romans 5:8. “Love your enemy” on the other hand as found in the Book of Matthew 5:44 and its parallel in Luke 6;27 where the Greek used of this kind of love towards our enemy is the Greek Agape or Agapate and not Phileo So agape “the love of God as seen in the other verses can be used the same as phileo. The two are not “COMPLETELY” differs. To prove my point against your own opinion is also found in in John 5;20 and in John 16:27 where the Greek phileo speaks about the love of God. Not to be treated as bias, I will also use critical English text as found in the Bible hub where the Greek philei is used for the kind of love God showed. You’re now out.
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1. So I should listen to you not people,who have studied Greek for years?
2. you failed to use the right passages, actually they go to prove my point, that the same English word is used, how can we tell the difference?
3. phileo fits all of those passages, I see nothing wrong with them (I had to cut them out because they made the post to long, and did not do anything to disprove what I said) all you did here was show you assume you know what my argument, is, you failed
4. I mentioned peters and Jesus discussion. how about that one?
John 21: 15 Now when they had finished breakfast, Jesus *said to Simon Peter, “Simon,
son of John, do you love (agape] Me more than these?” He *said to Him, “Yes, Lord; You know that I love (Phileo) You.” He *said to him, “Tend My lambs.” 16 He *said to him again, a second time, “Simon,
son of John, do you love (agape) Me?” He *said to Him, “Yes, Lord; You know that I love (Phileo) You.” He *said to him, “Shepherd My sheep.” 17 He *said to him the third time, “Simon,
son of John, do you love Me?” Peter was hurt because He said to him the third time, “Do you love Me?” And he said to Him, “Lord, You know all things; You know that I love (phileo) )You.” Jesus *said to him, “Tend My sheep.
can you explain how I can get the true meaning of what happened here by reading any English text? Since one word (love) is used in-spite of the fact that two different Greek words were used? You can’t!
this is not the only example, in Gal 1. Paul speaks of those who teach another gospel, which is not another
From the KJV (authorized)
Galatians 1:6–7 (AV): I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto
another gospel: 7 Which is not
another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ.
why is the same word used?
the first another is the Greek word heteros.. which means different in kind, a more accurate translation would be different, (funny how in the NKJV is is corrected to fit what the actual Greek word is)
the second another is the Greek word Allos which literally means another, (ie another one which is different than the one, but also works.)
Paul literally says he is astounded that the people of Galatia would believe a different Gospel (grace pulse works) which is not another gospel (you Can be saved by that gospel also)
again, the KJV fails in this area just like in John, however, this one the new version corrected the issue.
so yeah, once again who is biased here
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