Ephesians 2:11-12 not clear enough to you what was the state of gentiles in time past? Words like without hope and without God?
well let's look at the verses (if a person is going to quote something, for the most part, they should take the bother to actually include the verses and not just the reference IMO)
11 Therefore remember that at one time you Gentiles in the flesh, called “the uncircumcision” by what is called the circumcision, which is made in the flesh by hands— 12 remember that you were at that time separated from Christ, alienated from the commonwealth of Israel and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.
so, you take these verses OUT OF CONTEXT and hope to illustrate why your view is THE view. however, contextually, the 2 verses do NOT state what you are painfully trying to make them say
the OT law indicated a Gentile could convert to Judaism, so they would then be as Jewish as born Jew
nowhere is Paul saying no Gentile ever was saved. that, is your fabrication and if you would understand that doctrines do not have a one or two verse source, you might understand this concept.
the moment Christ rose from the dead, ALL must come to God through Him ONLY. no more OT law or sacrificial system. this now includes Jews and Gentiles who are ONE in Christ. Jews without Christ are now as dead and unbelieving as any Gentile who does not believe
But Jesus first coming on earth was for the nation Israel
why? did God only love the Jews?
for God so loved THE WORLD...it was always God's plan to include all who believed. Abraham was not born a Jew. how should we account for him? God creates...that is what He does. He has created a plan of salvation or redemption for ALL who believe.
Jesus had not yet come to earth, yet Abraham was accounted righteous before God. WHY? because he BELIEVED God. his faith was his righteousness
salvation is not an order of dos and donts like the OT