Pete, i asked what your justification is for asserting that Acts 10:48 is not H2O baptism, given that Acts 10:47 is explicitly H20 baptism, explicitly says thy have already been immersed in the Holy Spirit, and the two verses are literally all one sentence?
you answered:
so you are confessing that you have no justification for your statement about Acts 10:47-48, is this correct?
that your view on it is 100% eisegesis?
i really don't want to join with those who are belittling you. i don't want to be antagonistic to your harm. but i really don't see any way around you being quite wrong in your interpretation of this passage. the language here isn't ambiguous; Simon Peter is the authority in the room at Cornelius' house, and he's clearly expressing that no one has any legitimate right to refuse to allow these Gentiles to be immersed in H20 on account of the fact that they have already been approved by God by clear sign of their being baptized by the Holy Spirit. he clearly speaks of H20 baptism, then commands that all these who are baptized in the Holy Spirit already, to be baptized. that has to be H2O baptism the apostle is commanding.
don't get me wrong, Peter. i believe H2O baptism is not necessary. i have argued very strongly against it in the past, in the first years of my being on this forum -- a man in a desert or outer space all alone with no water and no one to immerse him in it or sprinkle him with it can receive the gospel and be saved. he does not have to do any works, he does not have to take communion, he does not have to attend a congregation, he does not have to give offerings, he does not have to be baptized. the only thing strictly necessary for salvation is faith in Christ Jesus. but until you convince me otherwise, Acts 10 is definitely an example of H2O baptism being commanded to be carried out by the apostles, after Pentecost.