I don't believe we are expected to reverse the numbers. We must take them as they are and discern their meaning.Reverse the numbers via the way men think and it will all fall into place.
I don't believe we are expected to reverse the numbers. We must take them as they are and discern their meaning.Reverse the numbers via the way men think and it will all fall into place.
Well, that's in the human mind. God never had them reversed anyway. He told us about THREE DATES and the number of days until THESE WONDERS END {Second Coming}. It was mankind who couldn't figure it out and thus started wrongly placing the 1290 and 1335 into the 1000 year reign, which it could never be.I don't believe we are expected to reverse the numbers. We must take them as they are and discern their meaning.
In that case you should have no problem in seeing that 1260, 1290, and 1335 days all relate to the first half of Daniel's 70th week, which corresponds to the reign of the Antichrist.As I explained it takes care of every issue. Men's Traditions of old do not excite me, I only care about the facts.
Why would you believe that this is directly associated with anything other than that which is in the verse where it is found?This is what Christ meant by "let the reader understand".
What I have pointed out is that "let the reader understand" is directly related to all the prophecies in Daniel regarding the Antichrist and the Abomination of Desolation. The Lord wanted Christians to go back and carefully study the entire book of Daniel, since it deals primarily with the coming of the Antichrist and his destruction by Christ. Even the dreams of Nebuchadnezzar tie into this theme.Why would you believe that this is directly associated with anything other than that which is in the verse where it is found?
Matthew 27:50 - 54No...........Daniel was speaking about a FUTURE EVENT in Daniel 12:11, we know that because of the very first two verses in Dan. 12.
Dan. 12:1 And at that time shall Michael stand up, the great prince which standeth for the children of thy people: and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time: and at that time thy people shall be delivered, every one that shall be found written in the book.
2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
Hebrews 9:24-2811 And from the time that the daily sacrifice {Jesus is our DAILY SACRIFICE} shall be taken away, and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be a thousand two hundred and ninety days.
So are you saying you believe the Second Coming has happened already?I personally don't get why people even try to argue this point, the verses above tell you its wrong. Then we see Micheal standing up in Rev. 12 casting Satan out of Heaven and delivering the Fleeing Jews to Petra where they are protected for 1260 days until the Second Coming,
If you mean all prophecy in the book of Daniel, then - no. I believe there are some verses that reference things still future.Do you believe all of Daniel's prophecy is fulfilled?
What I have pointed out is that "let the reader understand" is directly related to all the prophecies in Daniel regarding the Antichrist and the Abomination of Desolation. The Lord wanted Christians to go back and carefully study the entire book of Daniel, since it deals primarily with the coming of the Antichrist and his destruction by Christ. Even the dreams of Nebuchadnezzar tie into this theme.
Daniel gives us an overview of events from the establishment of the Babylonian Empire to the establishment of the Kingdom of God on earth (as well as the establishment of everlasting righteousness in Israel and on earth) after the Second Coming of Christ.
And the Antichrist and his Abomination of Desolation precede the Second Coming in the first half of Daniel's 70th week.
The only thing the parenthetical phrases in Matthew and Mark directly have to do with is what is being said in the verses where they are found.What I have pointed out is that "let the reader understand" is directly related to all the prophecies in Daniel regarding the Antichrist and the Abomination of Desolation.
How would anyone understand Matthew 24:15 without carefully studying the book of Daniel? So your objection has no validity, and I already showed that in my first response. No one would have a clue about the meaning of "the Abomination of Desolation" without the book of Daniel.It is there to indicate that something needed to properly understand it is purposely being left out
How would anyone understand Matthew 24:15 without carefully studying the book of Daniel? So your objection has no validity, and I already showed that in my first response. No one would have a clue about the meaning of "the Abomination of Desolation" without the book of Daniel.
You have entirely missed the point.There was no fleshly Jewish God siting on a throne.
I am referring to something "beyond" the painfully-obvious that the Jews understood (i.e., that prophecy of Daniel was involved - it is stated plainly in the verse).How would anyone understand Matthew 24:15 without carefully studying the book of Daniel? So your objection has no validity, and I already showed that in my first response. No one would have a clue about the meaning of "the Abomination of Desolation" without the book of Daniel.
I believe:
~ The "great tribulation" as spoken of in Matthew 24:21 started ~70 A.D.
~ We are currently in it.
~ It will end at some point in time in the future.
~ The worst is yet to come.
~ There will not be another brick-and-mortar temple. (At least, not that God will recognize - and, that would be valid for the Bible to call "temple of God"...)
I will have to address the other thing later.
Olivet Discourse prophecy is past, present, and future.
Revelation prophecy is past, present, and future.
Not all past. Not all future.
Both have been "unfolding" over the past ~2000 years.
The intent of this thread is to help Christians better understand a very commonly overlooked and ignored part of Olivet Discourse prophecy.
The parenthetical phrase in the title (found in Matthew 24:15), along with the Mark 13:14 counterpart, are 'key' to understanding the prophecy.
Before we get to what it means (that the Jews understood very well), I want to remind you of something concerning the three accounts of the Olivet Discourse (Matthew, Mark, Luke).
The three [separate] accounts of the Olivet Discourse are just exactly that - three accounts of the same event by three different writers.
While it is true that some of the details of the Olivet Discourse event are not recorded exactly the same way or in the exact same words in all three accounts (or, even, recorded in all three accounts - being left out of one or both of the other accounts), it is still [also] true - and does not change - that it is simply-and-only the same one event being recorded by three different writers.
The 'witness' of the event is the same for all three writers:
~ Matthew did not witness anything different than Mark or Luke.
~ Mark did not witness anything different than Matthew or Luke.
~ Luke did not witness anything different than Matthew or Mark.
You may find the following chart containing a table of coordinated verses of scripture to be useful in "visualizing" the continued discussion:
http://mywebsite.us/BibleStudy/Olivet_Discourse.html
If you will note on the chart that each row of the table aligns verses from the three accounts that "go together" in the overall "picture" of the Olivet Discourse.
Examine row 15 very carefully.
Now I will explain the meaning of the parenthetical statements "in reverse" . . . (I think it may make more sense to you this way.)
What Matthew and Mark "encrypted" - along with the 'decryption key' (the parenthetical statement) - Luke "just came out and said it" (simple, straight, and point-blank).
All three writers are saying the exact same thing.
The thing that the Jews understood that [most] modern Bible students do not - is that Matthew and Mark were making an indirect reference to the Abomination of Desolation and not a literal direct one.
They made reference to what Daniel was referring to and not the event Daniel was referring to.
The event Daniel was referring to occurred in 167 B.C.
The Jews understood them to be saying, in effect, that "when you see [what happened at the time of the AoD] begin/start to happen again" . . .
What happened at the time of the AoD that they understood?
Luke wrote it very simply and directly.
If you study the history, you will find that the description that Luke wrote is exactly what happened at the time of the AoD. (the surrounding of Jerusalem by/with armies and the desolation of Jerusalem)
The Matthew and Mark verses in row 15 are NOT actually saying "when you see the event occur (that Daniel is referring to)"; rather, they are saying "when you see [what happened at the time of the event (that Daniel is referring to)] occur" . . .
The actual event time for what Luke wrote is/was ~70 A.D.
What Matthew and Mark wrote is simply a different way of saying the same exact thing Luke said.
All three accounts are saying the exact same thing.
This is what you need to remember.
The explanation is for the purpose of helping you understand why and how it is that all three accounts are actually saying the same thing.
When did the GT start?Scripture tells us what is aligned with the start of the G.T. and what is aligned with the end of the G.T.
The G.T. has already started.
The G.T. has not yet ended.
(Preterism Is A False Teaching)The intent of this thread is to help Christians better understand a very commonly overlooked and ignored part of Olivet Discourse prophecy.
The parenthetical phrase in the title (found in Matthew 24:15), along with the Mark 13:14 counterpart, are 'key' to understanding the prophecy.
Before we get to what it means (that the Jews understood very well), I want to remind you of something concerning the three accounts of the Olivet Discourse (Matthew, Mark, Luke).
The three [separate] accounts of the Olivet Discourse are just exactly that - three accounts of the same event by three different writers.
While it is true that some of the details of the Olivet Discourse event are not recorded exactly the same way or in the exact same words in all three accounts (or, even, recorded in all three accounts - being left out of one or both of the other accounts), it is still [also] true - and does not change - that it is simply-and-only the same one event being recorded by three different writers.
The 'witness' of the event is the same for all three writers:
~ Matthew did not witness anything different than Mark or Luke.
~ Mark did not witness anything different than Matthew or Luke.
~ Luke did not witness anything different than Matthew or Mark.
You may find the following chart containing a table of coordinated verses of scripture to be useful in "visualizing" the continued discussion:
http://mywebsite.us/BibleStudy/Olivet_Discourse.html
If you will note on the chart that each row of the table aligns verses from the three accounts that "go together" in the overall "picture" of the Olivet Discourse.
Examine row 15 very carefully.
Now I will explain the meaning of the parenthetical statements "in reverse" . . . (I think it may make more sense to you this way.)
What Matthew and Mark "encrypted" - along with the 'decryption key' (the parenthetical statement) - Luke "just came out and said it" (simple, straight, and point-blank).
All three writers are saying the exact same thing.
The thing that the Jews understood that [most] modern Bible students do not - is that Matthew and Mark were making an indirect reference to the Abomination of Desolation and not a literal direct one.
They made reference to what Daniel was referring to and not the event Daniel was referring to.
The event Daniel was referring to occurred in 167 B.C.
The Jews understood them to be saying, in effect, that "when you see [what happened at the time of the AoD] begin/start to happen again" . . .
What happened at the time of the AoD that they understood?
Luke wrote it very simply and directly.
If you study the history, you will find that the description that Luke wrote is exactly what happened at the time of the AoD. (the surrounding of Jerusalem by/with armies and the desolation of Jerusalem)
The Matthew and Mark verses in row 15 are NOT actually saying "when you see the event occur (that Daniel is referring to)"; rather, they are saying "when you see [what happened at the time of the event (that Daniel is referring to)] occur" . . .
The actual event time for what Luke wrote is/was ~70 A.D.
What Matthew and Mark wrote is simply a different way of saying the same exact thing Luke said.
All three accounts are saying the exact same thing.
This is what you need to remember.
The explanation is for the purpose of helping you understand why and how it is that all three accounts are actually saying the same thing.