Yes this was my line of reasoning. I believe it is a very strong argument for salvation not being loseable.
I invite
@DorothyMae to explain and harmonize the above two Scriptures (John 17:12 and John 18:9) in her understanding of Judas' salvation being lost. Because Jesus lost none according to John 18:9. But if John 17:12 is interpreted to mean that He lost Judas (instead of what we believe, that Judas was a lost man and never found to begin with) that means Jesus indeed lost some. If one wants to argue for Judas' salvation, then they need to clear this contradiction.
I also thought of this last night:
John 6:12 When they were filled, he said unto his disciples, Gather up the
fragments that remain, that
nothing be lost.
Why was this so important to Jesus to gather all the remnants and nothing being lost. Did Jesus run out of power for multiplying food so He wanted to save the scraps for later? What else can it mean, "fragments that remain" and "nothing be lost", when it can be only one thing in the world.
Romans 9:27 Esaias also crieth concerning Israel, Though the number of the children of Israel be as the sand of the sea,
a remnant shall be saved:
Romans 11:5 Even so then at this present time also there is
a remnant according to the election of grace.
If my interpretation is wrong and some is indeed lost, please provide an alternative explanation of significance and meaning in Jesus commandment to the apostles to gather the remnants so that "nothing be lost".