If God gives the believer his 'believing' why does he do such a lousy job of it in some believers?
That's a serious question.
There would be no such thing as less than perfect believing if God was responsible for it.
I don't know why God does what He does. I only know He is all wise, all powerful and therefore whatever He does is the best way.
But, I do know He gives varying amounts of faith. If I show this then, although I can't answer your question, I can show that your implication that God does not give us FAITH is disproved.
Romans 12:3 as God has
apportioned to each a degree of faith (there you see that God apportions faith)
Romans 12:6 Since we have
gifts that differ according to the grace given to us, each of us is to use them accordingly: if [someone has the gift of] prophecy, [let him speak a new message from God to His people] in proportion to the faith possessed;
So, this shows God does give FAITH to people in different proportions. To most people He gives NONE.
Aside: I am using my definition and the dictionary's definition of FAITH (complete trust or confidence in someone or something. )
My turn.
Question1: .... Faith cometh by hearing the gospel. Not all hear the gospel. Those that don't hear the gospel are not saved. Why does God not give prevenient grace (what you call faith ... the ability of man to decide to believe or not) to everyone? I think you refer to this as being 'fair' and in order to be just.
Question2: God is all wise. Why would the all wise God allow individuals to determine whether they are saved or not saved. Specifically my question is: how can the MOST WISE GOD have the wisest outcome if His plan is dependent on evil people to determine events? Is it more important that Man's Will Be Done and God's Will Be Done in salvation?
Question3: Joseph Stalin killed an estimated 20 million people. Using your understanding of salvation ... there must have been some of that number that would have accepted Christ salvifically had they had lived ,,, and, of that number, using your understanding of salvation, some would have lost their faith. Therefore, using your understanding of salvation, Joseph Stalin decided to a limited extent who would and who would not be saved. (Not God and not the individual). How do you explain why God allows a 3rd party to determine who is saved or not? (Admittedly, to a limited extent)
Question4: I assume you believe God knows everything. How can God know who will believe Him salvifically when there was NOTHING. Philosophers have shown that from nothing, nothing comes (aside: thus the BIG BANG theory is bull-duty). Assuming you maintain the God looks into the future (which is not possible unless He plans the future and His knowledge comes from His plan) I ask you to explain why the following statement is in err:
The knowledge of God cannot arise from the things themselves, for then the knowledge of God would have a cause without him; and knowledge, which is an eminent perfection, would be conferred upon him by his creatures.
Note: There is the Law of Cause and Effect that states every Effect has a Cause. This state is correct by definition. Basically, the statement says God is eternal and the CAUSE OF ALL THINGS. Your view would have man, who is not eternal, cause God to have knowledge. You would have God knowledge of whom is saved to be an EFFECT and the non-existent man (in other words NOTHING) to be the CAUSE. Explain this.