Re-read that verse. "According to the law of Moses..." Is God beholden to the law of Moses? Or did He make Himself subject to it for righteousness sake?
Reread what?
no one fulfilled the law of moses, so all have been cursed by the law
the law required sacrifice of an innocent for atonement of sin
jesus fulfilled not only the moral code, which no one else did, but the sacrificial requirement
like Paul said in galations.
10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, “Cursed
iseveryone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.” 11 But that no one is [
d]justified by the law in the sight of God
is evident, for “the just shall live by faith.” 12 Yet the law is not of faith, but “the man who does them shall live by them.”
13
Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us (for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who hangs on a tree”), 14
that the blessing of Abraham might come upon the Gentiles in Christ Jesus, that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith.
he fulfilled the law as the lamb of God for all people