It is also referred to as a book... and the Good Book. Did you really not know this?![]()
Ta Biblia <---the book
It is also referred to as a book... and the Good Book. Did you really not know this?![]()
What book?
You didn't answer the question though.
Your point is accurately made. Faith only ...is a new age religion interpretation of scripture as, baptism not required, OSAS, repentance not necessary...Christ did it for us, super grace, etc. all new since the 1960's.
All of them Not scriptural.
Amen brother....and Hi from across the Pacific.....just west of Sydney about a hourIn talking about faith and works, you gotta look at the context of what kind of faith is being addressed.
* There is saving faith
* There is on going through your life acts of faith
They are not the same thing, and the going thru your life faith doesn't determine saving faith.
Saving faith.. is when someone places there trust in Jesus Christ as God, to redeem them from sin and give them eternal life. It is not a work.. it's a response to God's conviction on their soul.. for them to say the likes of'God be merciful to me, a sinner'.. once off act.. done and dusted.
Ongoing faith.. that is what we do in response to being saved in the first place.. our love letter back to Jesus for what He has done. That is where 'faith is a work' comes in.
But even then... that work is still all about Jesus.. and not meant to be about our own self. Loving God and leaving the results up to Him.
In James 2.. 'faith without works in dead'.. the context of this isn't about saving faith where someone receives eternal life.. but acts of service to Jesus.
When Abraham was 'justified by works' when he offered up his son Isaac.. that is not about receiving eternal life but an act of faith that is pleasing to God. Abraham would have been justified in terms of eternal life being given earlier.
Same goes for the 'hall of fame of faith' in James with the other examples.. all acts of service.. works pleasing to God.. but not acts to give eternal life.
There is justification for eternal life and there is acts of service that are justified. Not the same thing.
I properly harmonize scripture with scripture in order to reach the proper conclusion on doctrine. You on the other hand distort and pervert passages of scripture in an effort to "patch together" your so called gospel plan of salvation by faith plus works.You can't cut and dissect scripture.
In Mark 1:4, was this baptism of repentance (for) "in order to obtain" the forgiveness of sins or was it (for) "in regards to/on the basis of" the forgiveness of sins received upon repentance? *In Matthew 3:11, we read - I baptize you with water (for) repentance.. *Was this baptism (for) "in order to obtain" repentance? OR was this baptism (for) "in regards to/on the basis of" repentance? Getting water baptized "in order to obtain" repentance makes no sense at all. Repentance precedes water baptism. Obviously you don't baptize a new believer in order to obtain repentance, but BECAUSE they already repented.Mark 1:4 tells us that baptism is for the remission of sins....."John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins."
Once again, In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis. In Acts 2:40, we read - And with many other words he testified and exhorted them, saying, “Be saved from this perverse generation.” That does not mean we save ourselves by works, namely water baptism, as if Jesus needs our help in saving us.Acts 2; 38-40.... Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost....."save yourself".
As Greek scholar AT Robertson points out, baptism here pictures the washing away of sins by the blood of Christ, but it does not literally wash away our sins (contrary to your conclusion). The language in Acts 22:16 is similar to the statement of Christ when He took the bread and said, "This is my body" (Matthew 26:26). The bread was only the emblem of His body. Baptism is the emblem of the washing away of sins by the death of Christ. Every time a believer is immersed he washes away his sins in the same sense Paul did: not literally, but ceremonially, pointing to the death of Christ by which sins were actually washed away. In Acts 10:43, receiving remission of sins is connected with "believes in Him" and not with baptism (Acts 10:43-47). Also in Acts 26:18, remission of sins is connected with "faith in Him" and not baptism.Acts 22;16..... (Saul required to be baptized...by Christ)...."And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord."
We can see here that Jesus was baptized to fulfill all righteousness. Water baptism is a work of righteousness and we are not saved by works of righteousness which we have done.. (Titus 3:5)Matt 3;14,15... But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fullfill all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
We have a command here from Jesus to make disciples of all nations, and baptize converts. However, it does not say here that baptism is absolutely necessary for salvation. The same command also includes the clause "teaching them to observe all things" that Christ has commanded them.Matt., 28: 18-20... And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.
Once again: Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved (general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely necessary for salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief and not on a lack of baptism. So salvation rests on belief. *NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned." *You never did answer my question -- If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses?* (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics. John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.Mark 16;16... He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
Peter tells us that baptism now saves you, yet when Peter uses this phrase he continues in the same sentence to explain exactly what he means by it. He said that baptism now saves you-not the removal of dirt from the flesh (that is, not as an outward, physical act which washes dirt from the body--that is not what saves you), "but an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (that is, as an inward, spiritual transaction between God and the individual, a transaction that is symbolized by the outward ceremony of water baptism).I Peter 3;21....... The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:
Have you considered living water in John 3:5? Jesus said, "born of water and the Spirit" He did not say born of baptism and the Spirit. To automatically read baptism into this verse simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted. Scripture interprets itself. Notice in John 7:38-39, "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of LIVING WATER. But this He spoke concerning the SPIRIT. *Did you see that? If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again.John 3:5.... Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
Galatians 3:26 - For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus (Period.) *Not through faith and water baptism. *Also read John 1:12 - But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name. *Received Him, given the right to become children of God, through believing in His name, not through water baptism. Galatians 3:27 - For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on/clothed yourself with Christ. The Greek word for "put on" is"enduo" and means to enclose oneself in, as when one "puts on" clothes or armor or some other item. Involved in this is the idea of "imitation" and "identification." Just as 1 Corinthians 10:2 says that all (the Israelites) were "baptized into Moses" in the cloud and in the sea, but this does not mean they were literally water baptized into the body of Moses. Believers are baptized by one Spirit into one body.. (1 Corinthians 12:13 - Spirit baptism) and water baptized into would be in regards to identification and not placement into the body of Christ. You confuse the picture with the reality.Gal 3;26-27..... For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus.
27 For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ
In regards to Romans 6:3-4, Greek scholar AT Robertson explains - Baptism is the public proclamation of one's inward spiritual relation to Christ attained before the baptism. See on "Galatians 3:27" where it is like putting on an outward garment or uniform. Into his death (ei ton qanaton autou). So here "unto his death," "in relation to his death," which relation Paul proceeds to explain by the symbolism of the ordinance. The picture in baptism points two ways, backwards to Christ's death and burial and to our death to sin, forward to Christ's resurrection from the dead and to our new life pledged by the coming out of the watery grave to walk on the other side of the baptismal grave. There is the further picture of our own resurrection from the grave. It is a tragedy that Paul's majestic picture here has been so blurred by controversy that some refuse to see it. It should be said also that a symbol is not the reality, but the picture of the reality.Rom. 6;3,4...know ye not,that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?
4 ....Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: like Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.
Since believers receive the benefits of Christ’s death and resurrection (justification), and that through faith, believers must be spiritually united to Him (delivered and raised up with Him). If baptism is taken as the instrumental cause, then Paul contradicts what he had established before, namely that justification is by FAITH, not baptism. *Hermeneutics. Paul clearly teaches that what is signified in baptism (buried and raised with Christ) actually occurs "through faith." Christians are "buried with Him in baptism, in which you also were raised with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead" (Colossians 2:12). Justification on account of union in Christ's death, burial and resurrection is brought about "through faith" - and is properly symbolized by dipping the new believer in and out of the water.Col 2:12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
The verses that you cited on baptism are the typical alleged proof texts which are often cited by works-salvationists in an effort to try and prove that the Bible makes water baptism absolutely necessary for salvation, yet after a careful examination of each of these texts in context will show that none of them prove that baptism is absolutely necessary for salvation, although they do prove that baptism was an assumed initiatory response to the gospel of salvation. In other words, these texts prove only that baptism is regularly associated with conversion and salvation, rather than absolutely required for salvation. I grew up in the Roman Catholic church and had also temporarily spent some time in the church of Christ (prior to my conversion) and I've had numerous conversations with people over the years who attend false religions and cults that teach salvation by water baptism + other works (Roman Catholics, Mormons, Campbellites, SDA's, Oneness Pentecostals etc..) so none of your arguments are anything new or enlightening. BTW where do you attend church?There are more.
But, if you don't accept these of G-d's word no others will help you, probably.
The Bible sometimes only mentions repentance as a condition for salvation. One example of this would be Luke 13:3, "I tell you, Nay: but, except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish." Also see (Luke 24:47; Acts 3:19; Acts 5:31). A few times both repentance and believe/faith are mentioned in the same verse (Matthew 21:32; Mark 1:15; Acts 20:21). There are many, many verses which mention belief/faith as the condition for salvation (John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; Acts 10:43; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; Ephesians 2:8,9; Philippians 3:9 etc..). Repentance is a "change of mind" and the new direction of this change of mind is faith in Christ. *Two sides to the same experience.* When only repentance is mentioned, faith is implied or assumed. When only faith is mentioned, repentance is implied or assumed. Where you have one you must have the other. *Repentance and belief/faith are inseparable in obtaining salvation.* If you believe the gospel, then you already repented in the process of changing your mind and choosing to believe the gospel. *Not so with baptism. *You can repent and believe the gospel, but NOT YET BE WATER BAPTIZED.Example; ....Mark 16:16...lends itself to the subject of Repentance even though it mentions baptism.
Acts 38;40 addresses both repentance and baptism whereas John 3;5...addresses baptism ...only with no mention of repentance, same with I Peter 3;21..
I properly harmonize scripture with scripture in order to reach the proper conclusion on doctrine. You on the other hand distort and pervert passages of scripture in an effort to "patch together" your so called gospel plan of salvation by faith plus works.
No, it's not a lie. Those who teach that we are saved by faith "plus water baptism" or faith "plus other works" are teaching salvation by faith "plus works."This phrase faith plus works is the lie.
We show our faith by our works, (James 2:18) but we do not establish it. Faith produces works and not the other way around. Faith is the root of salvation and works are the fruit. No fruit at all would demonstrate there is no root.Faith shows works, if it does not it is not faith in Jesus.
The error is to believe that works are the very essence of faith and the means of our salvation rather than the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of faith.The error is to believe faith can exist without its demonstration.
No, it's not a lie. Those who teach that we are saved by faith "plus water baptism" or faith "plus other works" are teaching salvation by faith "plus works."
We show our faith by our works, (James 2:18) but we do not establish it. Faith produces works and not the other way around. Faith is the root of salvation and works are the fruit. No fruit at all would demonstrate there is no root.
The error is to believe that works are the very essence of faith and the means of our salvation rather than the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of faith.
Have you thought that your position could be miss-understood?
The two greatest commands of God, that summarise everything in the law and the prophets is
Love God with everything you are, and love your neighbour as yourself.
Now anyone who claims this God is their God, their Lord, their Saviour and they love Him yet
they do not respect or desire to obey and follow, how can they be speaking the truth?
Do not think I do not know this is the Kingdom of Heaven, and we as sinners find this way
impossible, unless we have the Holy Spirit, but those who seem to argue this is all irrelevant
seem also to be dysfunctional in these very areas.
I would suggest it is possible to gain an understanding of Jesus and not know Him in ones
heart, and be convinced you know everything about Him, yet not. And one clear sign of this
reality is the violent nature of argument with others, attempting to tare them down, when
revelation and conviction from the Lord is what is needed with openness and empathy with
people troubled past and lives.
I have come away sometimes completely discouraged and condemned for daring to suggest
Jesus changes us and His love can flow from within to others, that we can overcome and be
healed, made whole, at peace, resolved. Such anger and tumult speaks of what is at war in
many, and not the Holy Spirit, and resolution.
I do not know your particular story, but I will share my heart, and trust that this may bless and
help others. God bless you
"But woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites!"For me, this exchange once again shows that, for those who hold on to Covenant Theology, that salvation has always been by grace thru faith alone, apart from works, ever since Adam's fall, they have to do so much mental gymnastics with verses like Mark 16:16 and Acts 2:38.
Those 2 verses are very clear in terms of stating that salvation for the Jews has never been by faith alone in Christ under the Gospel of the Kingdom. In order to explain away these clear verses, they have to say, "Oh what Jesus and Peter really meant to say was that "He that has repented/believed will be saved, but this saved person should therefore be baptized after being saved."
I mean, are they really implying that both Jesus and Peter were such poor communicators, that they would need us in the 21st century, to explain what they really meant? If that is what they really meant, why don't they just go ahead and say that instead?![]()
"But woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites!"
Works didn't do doodly for the S & P, as they were not mixed with faith. Also, they sought to establish their own righteousness by them.
Genesis 15:6 - And he believed in the Lord, and He accounted it to him for righteousness. Romans 4:2 - For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it (faith, not works) was accounted to him for righteousness.”For me, this exchange once again shows that, for those who hold on to Covenant Theology, that salvation has always been by grace thru faith alone, apart from works, ever since Adam's fall, they have to do so much mental gymnastics with verses like Mark 16:16 and Acts 2:38. Those 2 verses are very clear in terms of stating that salvation for the Jews has never been by faith alone in Christ under the Gospel of the Kingdom.
Well at least you believe the latter, yet people like Preston39 and other works-salvationists peddle salvation by water baptism before and after the cross.Acts 2:38 explained that water baptism, together with repentance, was required in order to be baptized with the Holy Spirit. Of course it is not required now for us Gentiles under the gospel of grace, we receive the Holy Spirit baptism by faith. (Ephesians 4:5)
Genesis 15:6 - And he believed in the Lord, and He accounted it to him for righteousness. Romans 4:2 - For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it (faith, not works) was accounted to him for righteousness.”
There are multiple verses in the Bible (before and after the cross) that make it clear man is saved through belief/faith "apart from additions or modifications." (Luke 8:12; John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 11:17; 13:39; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; 4:5-6; 5:1; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8,9; Philippians 3:9; 1 John 5:13 etc..) It's takes way more mental gymnastics to try and "force" these multiple passages of scripture to "conform" to your biased interpretation of Mark 16:16 and Acts 2:38 then it does to properly harmonize Mark 16:16 and Acts 2:38 with these multiple passages of scripture.
Well at least you believe the latter, yet people like Preston39 and other works-salvationists peddle salvation by water baptism before and after the cross.
No, it's not a lie. Those who teach that we are saved by faith "plus water baptism" or faith "plus other works" are teaching salvation by faith "plus works."
We show our faith by our works, (James 2:18) but we do not establish it. Faith produces works and not the other way around. Faith is the root of salvation and works are the fruit. No fruit at all would demonstrate there is no root.
The error is to believe that works are the very essence of faith and the means of our salvation rather than the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of faith.
Since when does properly harmonizing scripture with scripture equate to arguing from silence?What you are doing above, as well as your other replies, is basically "arguing from silence".
I did address Mark 16:16 and Acts 2:38 directly and if water baptism was absolutely required for salvation then Jesus would not have made so many statements in which He promises eternal life to those who simply BELIEVE. (John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26)Instead of addressing Mark 16:16 and Acts 2:38 directly, you are using the point that, since baptism was not found in other passages about salvation, thus baptism cannot be required in those 2 original passages.
So if multiple passages of scripture clearly teach that man is saved through belief/faith "apart from additions or modifications" we should just assume those verses left out water baptism, even though they were silent about including water baptism? That would be flawed hermeneutics.Its a logical fallacy to do that. You cannot interpret silence as either agreement or disagreement. The following link explains this in more detail.
https://radicallychristian.com/why-is-it-a-logical-fallacy-to-make-an-argument-from-silence
I read through your link and it did not persuade my view. At least you agree that water baptism is not necessary for salvation "now" through your dispensational view on steroids. Many people who believe that water baptism is absolutely necessary for salvation believe that it was necessary for salvation then AND "now."I actually agree with you that water baptism is no longer required now for salvation.
If you are satisfied with dispensationalism on steroids or contradictions in scripture, then go ahead and continue to believe that, but you will never convince me to agree with that method of flawed hermeneutics.But it does not mean that water baptism was never required for Jews in the past. It was, and passages like Mark 16 16 and Acts 2 38 should be interpreted literally.
Since when does properly harmonizing scripture with scripture equate to arguing from silence?
I did address Mark 16:16 and Acts 2:38 directly and if water baptism was absolutely required for salvation then Jesus would not have made so many statements in which He promises eternal life to those who simply BELIEVE. (John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26)
.
As long as you at least currently hold to salvation by grace through faith in Christ alone.That is the main benefit of being a dispensationalist in my opinion. We can interpret Bible verses literally and still maintain our position that, under the current gospel of grace, salvation is indeed by faith alone.![]()
To the contrary. Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved (general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on a lack of baptism. So salvation rests on belief. NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned." If you can persuade Jesus to re-write the Bible to include AND be baptized in John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26 then your dispensational view just might hold water.Mark 16:16 is an example of a crystal clear verse to me. If you really respect the literal KJV phrasing, there is no way around the fact that it says you need to believe AND be baptized, in order to be saved.
No and I noticed in the article, it said -- On the other hand, the arguments from silence in favor of instrumental music are equally fallacious. When someone says, “God never forbids instruments, therefore they are acceptable in worship,” they are making a logically fallacious argument. The absence of a prohibition cannot be interpreted as permission. My position is always that we should, “speak where the Bible speaks and be silent where the Bible is silent.” We cannot interpret God’s silence on instruments in the New Testament as permission to use them.By the way, do you agree with my last point to you that you are "arguing from silence"?