It's still the same Gospel to both. The terms used reflect the different target groups.
Sounds good, but there would not be the two terms pointed to specifically one to Jews and one to Gentiles. There was a difference.
It's still the same Gospel to both. The terms used reflect the different target groups.
If you take the Bible literally where it is intended, and see that God often deals with Israel separate from the Church, then that to me is the core of the dispensational approach. Personally I see that James applies to both the Jewish and Gentile believers.
Um noYou didn’t even realised there was a gospel of the kingdom for the Jews.
But that is expected. As I said it takes a dispensationalist to accept that.
Yes those things pertain to the church. I know this, They did not happen in the OT every time either.. I think you just make this stuff up;Are the sick healed when elders pray over them? Every time, no ifs or buts? Are sins forgiven through the prayers of others? During the 2000 years of the Church, has the Lord’s coming been nigh?
Does the following literally describe you? The body of Christ? Or do you privately interpret it other than what it literally says?
2 Ye lust, and have not: ye kill, and desire to have, and cannot obtain: ye fight and war, yet ye have not, because ye ask not.
3 Ye ask, and receive not, because ye ask amiss, that ye may consume it upon your lusts.
4 Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with God? whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.
The difference was that Peter was to give the Gospel mainly to the Jews and Paul was mainly to the Gentiles, otherwise...Sounds good, but there would not be the two terms pointed to specifically one to Jews and one to Gentiles. There was a difference.
Yes those things pertain to the church. I know this, They did not happen in the OT every time either.. I think you just make this stuff up;
dude, I do not know where you come up with this stuff. But it is not according to the word.
Um no
I have no idea what your talking about
The gospel of the kingdom was for all people. John the baptist preached it long before James and or paul. .
Obviously, part of the audience had not received the word and their souls not saved. James 1:21.
James 1:21 (KJV) Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls.
Obviously they had already the implanted Word which couples with v18..James 1:18 (KJV) Of his own will begat he us with the word of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures.
You do remember salvation is in three senses? We have been saved, we are being saved, and one day we shall be saved.
James 1:21 (KJV) Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls.
Obviously they had already the implanted Word which couples with v18..James 1:18 (KJV) Of his own will begat he us with the word of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures.
You do remember salvation is in three senses? We have been saved, we are being saved, and one day we shall be saved.
Also our soul is being further sanctified (unless you are now perfect) and one day we will be saved from the wrath to come. (Rom 5:9-10). Or do you just like arguing?I am saved. Period. At the moment of belief in the gospel of Christ. My soul is completely saved for eternity.
V18 Israel? I don't see Israel in that passage. Weren't you born again through His Word in the Gospel?V18 is a perfect representation of Israel, a kind of fitstfruits.
Now who is adding to the word.Every time elders pray in faith over the sick, the sick are healed in the Church? Really? Signs and miracles will be part of the message to the Jews to confirm the message.
FIRST to the JEW, Then to Sameria Then to the ends of the earthWho did John preach it to? Gentiles? Jews? Why did Jesus tell His disciples not to preach the kingdom gospel to samaritans or Gentiles?
AmenV18 Israel? I don't see Israel in that passage. Weren't you born again through His Word in the Gospel?
or...
1 Peter 1:23 (KJV) Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
Matthew 28: 18) Jesus came to them and said, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. 19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age.” (NIV)FIRST to the JEW, Then to Sameria Then to the ends of the earth
You keep looking-for excuses, and they keep failing
It was the SAME GOSPEL
can you show me where He deals with them separately?If you take the Bible literally where it is intended, and see that God often deals with Israel separate from the Church, then that to me is the core of the dispensational approach. Personally I see that James applies to both the Jewish and Gentile believers.
can you show me where He deals with them separately?
Now who is adding to the word.
It does not say EVERY TIME
And did that happen in the OT
NO
So either way YOUR WRONG!
FIRST to the JEW, Then to Sameria Then to the ends of the earth
You keep looking-for excuses, and they keep failing
It was the SAME GOSPEL