No you did not and i assume you can not.
See post 212
Why are you so lazy reading proofs?
No you did not and i assume you can not.
Of course you are wrong.
John 14: 28You heard Me say, ‘I am going away, and I am coming back to you.’ If you loved Me, you would rejoice thatI am going to the Father, because the Father is greater than I.
John 16:5Now, however,I am going to Him who sent Me; yet none of you asks Me, ‘Where are You going?’
John 16:28I came from the Father and entered the world. In turn, I will leave the world and go to the Father.”
Even after resurrection, Jesus was still insisting that He is 'going'.
John 20:17“Do not cling to Me,” Jesus said, “for I have not yet ascended to the Father. But go and tell My brothers, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your Father, to My God and your God.’”
Try again, the death of Jesus was not His going.
Then you missed the point. After His resurrection, Jesus still insisted that He had not yet gone to the Father:
John 20:17“Do not cling to Me,” Jesus said, “for I have not yet ascended to the Father. But go and tell My brothers, ‘I am ascending to My Father andyour Father, to My God and your God.’”
And we know the 'going' was to the Father:
John 14: 28You heard Me say, ‘I am going away, and I am coming back to you.’ If you loved Me, you would rejoice thatI am going to the Father,because the Father is greater than I.
John 16:5Now, however,I am going to Him who sent Me; yet none of you asks Me, ‘Where are You going?’
John 16:28I came from the Father and entered the world. In turn, I will leave the world and go to the Father.”
So, the going was not about His death or the rolled tomb stone or the appearance after resurrection, the 'going' was about ascension.
Thank you for this post! And the websites! Glad you are here.
And am behind as usual in most threads.
It was imperative that Jesus died and rose again for the salvation of men: see Mat_20:19; Mat_26:2; Mar_9:31; Mar_10:33, Luk_9:44; Luk_18:32.
This is his "going away." Without his death and resurrection there is no salvation.
The above part he posted is correct. If you took the time to look at the proofs I posted you would see it for yourself.
Now lets look at John 20 in next post.
That is how Jesus went. He ascended into heaven. We have known that all along. So what is your point?
Why would we completely know while we are yet human and God is Spirit? We will know when we are there with Him!
But! Jesus does want us to know that we within our humanity, carry the same Holy Spirit that He is and was in His human form. Not all the Godhead but the measure we can contain.
I see now the scripture declares that Holy Spirit is both the Spirit of Christ, and the Spirit of Father. Yet, He too has presence. I didn't see this at the beginning of this thread.
What has that got to do with what i said?Till all was accomplished. Job done! Then, he returned to the Father AFTER he had done the Father's will.
Saying, Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done. (Luk 22:42)
I don't feel qualified to answer your question, sorry. I just believe that God has a time and place for everything and that time was yet to come. We know the Holy Spirit was active at creation and present with Israel, see hereMy point is very simple;
1. The comforter was already there with the disciples and they knew Him
2. Yet Jesus had to go (ascend to the Father) for the comforter to come into them (disciples)
3. Jesus also promises that He will not leave them comfortless, He will come back to them shortly
My conclusion:
Jesus claimed to be the comforter in this passages. He was with them and they knew Him, He had to go and come in a different form because He promised not to leave them comfortless.
If indeed, they are two persons, why wouldn't the Holy spirit just indwell them at the command of Jesus? after all, the scripture confirms that the Holy spirit was already there with the disciples and they knew Him. The only person that the disciples knew was Jesus.
1.You did not post any proof, your work doesn't meet the threshold for proving anything because it is in a language that majority of the people don't understand...
What has that got to do with what i said?
I'm still trying to understand from your point of view, why must Jesus go first before the Holy spirit indwells the disciples? What is the connection between Jesus going and the HS indwelling them?